DATA COMMUNICATION AND NETWORKS

DATA COMMUNICATION AND NETWORKS

DATA COMMUNICATION AND NETWORKS

1. Define the term Computer Networks.
A Computer network is a number if computers interconnected by one or more transmission paths. The transmission path often is the telephone line, due to its convenience and universal preserve.
2. Define Data Communication.
Data Communication is the exchange of data (in the form of Os and 1s) between two devices via some form of transmission medium (such as a wire cable).
3. What is the fundamental purpose behind data Communication?
The purpose of data communication is to exchange information between two agents.
4. List out the types of data Communication.
Data Communication is considered
Local – if the communicating device are in the same building.
Remote – if the device are farther apart.
5. Define the terms data and information.
Data: is a representation of facts, concepts and instructions presented in a formalized manner suitable for communication, interpretation or processing by human beings or by automatic means.
Information: is currently assigned to data by means by the conventions applied to those data.
6. What are the fundamental characteristics on which the effectiveness of data communication depends on?
The effectiveness of a data communication system depends on three characteristics.
1. Delivery: The system must deliver data to the correct destination.
2. Accuracy: The system must deliver data accurately.
3. Timeliness: The system must deliver data in a timely manner.
7. Give components of data communication.
1. Message – the message is the information to be communicated.
2. Sender – the sender is the device that sends the data message.
3. Receiver – the receiver is the device that receive the message.
4. Medium – the transmission medium is the physical path by which a message travels from sender to receiver.
5. Protocol – A protocol is a set of rules that govern data communication.
8. Define Network.
A Network is a set of devices (nodes) connected by media links. A node can be a computer, printer, or any other device capable of sending and / or receiving data generated by other nodes on the network.
9. What are the advantage of distributed processing?
1. Security / Encapsulation
2. Distributed database
3. Faster problem solving
4. Security through redundancy
5. Collaborative processing
10. What are the three criteria necessary for an effective and efficient network?
1. Performance
2. Reliability
3. Security
11. Name the factors that affect the performance of a network
-performance of a network depends on a number of factors,
1. Number of users
2. Type of transmission medium
3. Capabilities of the connected hardware
4. Efficiency of software.
12. Name of the factors that affect the performance of a network.
1. Frequency of failure
2. Recovery time of a network after a failure.
3. Catastrophe.
13. Name the factors that affect the security of a network.
Network security issues include protecting data from unauthorized access and viruses.
14. Define PROTOCOL
A protocol is a set of rules (conventions) that govern all aspects of data communication.
15. Give the key elements of protocol.
• Syntax: refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in which they are presented.
• Semantics: refers to the meaning of each section of bits.
1. Timing: refers to two characteristics.
2. When data should be sent and
3. How fast they can be sent.
16. Define line configuration and give its types.
- Line configuration refers to the way two or more
communication devices attach to a link.
- There are two possible line configurations:
i. Point to point and
ii. Multipoint.
17. Define topology and mention the types of topologies.
Topology defines the physical or logical arrangement of links in a network
Types of topology :
- Mesh
- Star
- Tree
- Bus
- Ring
18. Define Hub.
In a star topology, each device has a dedicated point to point link only to a central controller usually called a hub.
19. Give an advantage for each type of network topology.
1. Mesh topology:
* Use of dedicated links guarantees that each connection can carry its own data load, thus eliminating traffic problems.
* Robust and privacy / security.
2. Star topology:
* Less expensive than mesh.
* Needs only one link and one input and output port to connect it any number of others.
* Robustness.
3. Tree topology:
* same as those of a star.
4. Bus topology:
* Ease of installation.
* Uses less cabling than mesh, star or tree topologies.
5. Ring topology:
* A ring is relatively easy to install and reconfigure.
* Each device is linked only to its immediate neighbors.
• Fault isolation is simplified.
20. Define transmission mode and its types.
Transmission mode defines the direction of signal flow between two linked devices.
Transmission modes are of three types.
- Simplex
- Half duplex
- Full duplex.
21. What is LAN?
Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that uses technology designed to span a small geographical area. For e.g. an Ethernet is a LAN technology suitable for use in a single building.
22. What is WAN?
Wide Area Network (WAN) is a network that uses technology designed to span a large geographical area. For e.g. a satellite network is a WAN because a satellite can relay communication across an entire continent. WANs have higher propagation delay than LANs.

DATA COMMUNICATION AND NETWORKS

23. What is MAN?
* A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a network that uses technology designed to extend over an entire city.
* For e.g. a company can use a MAN to connect the LANs in all its offices throughout a city.
24. Define Peer to peer processes.
The processes on each machine that communicate at a given layer are called peer to peer processes.
25. What is half duplex mode?
A transmission mode in which each station can both transmit and receive, but not at the same time.
26. What is full duplex mode?
A transmission mode in which both stations can transmit and receive simultaneously.
27. What is internet?
• When two or more networks are connected they become an internetwork or internet.
• The most notable internet is called the Internet.
28. What is Internet ?
The Internet is a communication system that has brought a wealth of information to out fingertips and organized it for our use.
Internet – Worldwide network.
29. List the layers of OSI model.
- Physical
- Data Link
- Network
- Transport
- Session
- Presentation
- Application.
30. Define OSI model.
The open system Interconnection model is a layered framework for the design of network system that allows for communication across all types of computer systems.
31. Which OSI layers are the network support layers?
- Physical
- Data link
- Network layers.
32. Which OSI layers are the user support layers?
- Session
- Presentation
- Application.
33. What are the responsibilities of physical layer, data link layer, network layer, transport layer, session layer, presentation layer, application layer.
a. Physical layer – Responsible for transmitting individual bits from one node to the next.
b. Data link layer – Responsible for transmitting frames from one node to the next.
c. Network layer – Responsible for the delivery of packets from the original source to the final destination.
d. Transport layer – Responsible for delivery of a message from one process to another.
e. Session layer – To establish, manage and terminate sessions.
f. Presentation layer – Responsible to translate, encrypt and compress data.
g. Application layer – Responsible for providing services to the user. To allow access to network resources.
34. What is the purpose of dialog controller?
The session layer is the network dialog controller. It establishes, maintains and synchronizes the interaction between communicating systems.
35. Name some services provided by the application layer.
Specific services provided by the application layer include the following.
- Network virtual terminal.
- File transfer, access and management (FTAM).
- Mail services.
- Directory services.
36. Define Network Virtual Terminal.
Network Virtual Terminal – OSI remote login protocol. It is an imaginary terminal with a set of standard characteristics that every host understands.
37. Define the term transmission medium.
The transmission medium is the physical path between transmitter and receiver in a data transmission system. The characteristics and quality of data transmission are determined both the nature of signal and nature of the medium.
38. What are the types of transmission media?
Transmission media are divided into two categories. They are as follows:
I. Guided transmission media
II. Unguided transmission media
39. How do guided media differ from unguided media?
A guided media is contained within physical boundaries, while an unguided medium is boundless.
40. What are the three major classes of guided media?
Categories of guided media.
a. Twisted – pair cable.
b. Coaxial cable.
c. Fiber – optic cable.
41. What is a coaxial cable?
A type of cable used for computer network as well as cable television. The name arises from the structure in which a metal shield surrounds a center wire. The shield protects the signal on the inner wire from electrical interference.
42. A light beam travels to a less dense medium. What happens to the beam in each of the following cases:
1. The incident angle is less than the critical angle.
2. The incident angle is equal to the critical angle.
3. The incident angle is greater than the critical angle.
1. The incident angle is less than the critical angle.
the ray refracts and moves closer to the surface.
2. The incident angle is equal to the critical angle.
the light bends along the interface.
3. The incident angle is greater than the critical angle.
the ray reflects and travels again in the denser substance.
43. What is reflection?
When the angle of incident becomes greater than the critical angel, a new phenomenon occurs called reflection.
DATA COMMUNICATION AND NETWORKS
44. Discuss the modes for propagation light along optical channels.
There are two modes for propagating light along optical channels.
Single mode and multimode.
Multimode can be implemented in two forms: step index or graded index.
45. What is the purpose of cladding in an optical fiber? Discuss its density relative to the core.
A glass or plastic is surrounded by a cladding of less dense glass or plastic.
The difference in density of the two materials must be such that a beam of light moving through the core is reflected off the cladding instead of being refracted into it.
46. Name the advantage of optical fiber over twisted pair and coaxial cable.
Higher bandwidth.
Less signal attenuation.
Immunity to electromagnetic interference.
Resistance to corrosive materials.
More immune to tapping.
Light weight.
47. What is the disadvantage of optical fiber as a transmission medium?
Installation / Maintenance.
Unidirectional.
Cost – More expensive than those of other guided media.
48. What does the term modem stands for ?
Modem stands for modulator / demodulator.
49. What is the function of a modulator?
A modulator converts a digital signal into an analog signal using ASK, FSK, PSK or QAM.
50. What is the function of a demodulator?
A de modulator converts an analog signal into a digital signal.
51. What is an Intelligent modems?
Intelligent modems contain software to support a number of additional functions such as automatic answering and dialing.
52. What are the factor that affect the data rate of a link?
The data rate of a link depends on the type of encoding used and the bandwidth of the medium.
53. Define Line coding.
Line coding is the process of converting binary data, a sequence of bits, to a digital signal.
54. For n devices in a network, what is the number of cable links necessary for mesh, ring, bus and star networks.
Number of links for mesh topology : n (n – 1) / 2.
Number of links for ring topology : n – 1.
Number of links for bus topology : one backbone and n drop lines.
Number of links for star topology : n.
55. Write the design issues of datalink layer?
1) Services provided to network layer.
2) Framing
3) Error control
4) Flow control
56. What is datalink?
When a datalink control protocol is used the transmission medium between systems is referred to as a datalink.
57. What is the main function of datalink layer?
The datalink layer transforms the physical layer, a raw transmission facility to a reliable link and is responsible for node to node delivery.
58. What is a datalink protocol?
Datalink protocol is a layer of control present in each communicating device that provides functions such as flow control, error detection and error control.
59. What is meant by flow control?
Flow control is a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for an acknowledgement.
60. How is error controlled in datalink controlled protocol?
In a datalink control protocol, error control is activated by retransmission of damaged frame that have not been acknowledged by other side which requests a retransmission.
61. Discuss the concept of redundancy in error detection.
Error detection uses the concept of redundancy, which means adding extra bits for detecting errors at the destination.
62. What are the three types of redundancy checks used in data communications?
- Vertical Redundancy Check (VRC)
- Longitudinal Redundancy Check (LRC)
- Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)
63. How can the parity bit detect a damaged data unit?
In parity check, (a redundant bit) a parity bit is added to every data unit so that the total number of 1s is even for even parity checking function (or odd for odd parity).
64. How can we use the Hamming code to correct a burst error?
By rearranging the order of bit transmission of the data units, the Hamming code can correct burst errors.
DATA COMMUNICATION AND NETWORKS
65. Briefly discuss Stop and Wait method of flow control?
In Stop and Wait of flow control, the sender sends one frame and waits for an acknowledgement before sending the next frame.
66. In the Hamming code for a data unit of m bits how do you compute the number of redundant bits ‘r’ needed?
In the Hamming code, for a data unit of m bits, use the formula 2r > = m + r + 1 to determine r, the number of redundant bits needed.
67. What are three popular ARQ mechanisms?
- Stop and wait ARQ,
- Go – Back – N ARQ and
- Selective Report ARQ.
68. How does ARQ correct an error?
Anytime an error is detected in an exchange, a negative acknowledgment (NAK) is returned and the specified frames are retransmitted.
69. What is the purpose of the timer at the sender site in systems using ARQ?
The sender starts a timer when it sends a frame. If an acknowledgment is not received within an allotted time period, the sender assumes that the frame was lost or damaged and resends it.
70. What is damaged frame?
A damaged frame is recognizable frame that does arrive, but some of the bits are in error (have been altered during transmission)
71. What is HDLC?
HDLC is a bit oriented datalink protocol designed to support both half-duplex and full duplex communication over point to point and multiport link.
72. Give data transfer modes of HDLC?
1. NRM – Normal Response Mode
2. ARM – Asynchronous Response Mode
3. ABM - Asynchronous Balanced Mode
73. How many types of frames HDLC uses?
1. U-Frames
2. I-Frames
3. S-Frame
74. State phases involved in the operation of HDLC?
1. Initialization
2. Data transfer
3. Disconnect
75. What is the meaning of ACK frame?
ACK frame is an indication that a station has received something from another.
76. What is CSMA?
Carrier Sense Multiple Access is a protocol used to sense whether a medium is busy before attempting to transmit.
77. Explain CSMA/CD
Carrier Sense Multiple Access with collision detection is a protocol used to sense whether a medium is busy before transmission but is has the ability to detect whether a transmission has collided with another.
78. State advantage of Ethernet?
1. Inexpensive
2. Easy to install
3. Supports various wiring technologies
79. What is fast Ethernet?
It is the high speed version of Ethernet that supports data transfer rates of 100 Mbps.
80. What is bit stuffing and why it is needed in HDLC?
Bit stuffing is the process of adding one extra 0 whenever there are five consecutive 1s in the data so that the receiver does not mistake the data for a flag. Bit stuffing is needed to handle data transparency.
81. What is a bridge?
Bridge is a hardware networking device used to connect two LANs. A bridge operates at data link layer of the OSI reference model.
82. What is a repeater?
Repeater is a hardware device used to strengthen signals being transmitted on a networks.
83. Define router?
A network layer device that connects networks with different physical media and translates between network architectures.
84. State the functions of bridge?
1. Frame filtering and forwarding
2. Learning the address
3. Routing
85. List any two functions which a bridge cannot perform?
- Bridge cannot determine most efficient path.
- Traffic management function.
86. What is hub?
Networks require a central location to bring media segment together. These central locations are called hubs.
87. State important types of hubs.
1. Passive hub
2. Active hub
3. Intelligent hub
88. Mention the function of hub.
1. Facilitate adding/deleting or moving work stations
2. Extend the length of network
3. It provides centralize management services
4. Provides multiple interfaces.
89. What is the main function of gateway.
A gateway is a protocol converter
90. A gateway operates at which layer.
Gateway operates at all seven layers of OSI model.
91. Which factors a gateway handles?
Data rate, data size, data format
DATA COMMUNICATION AND NETWORKS
92. What is meant by active hub?
A central hub in a network that retransmits the data it receives.
93. What is the function of ACK timer?
ACK timer is used in flow control protocols to determine when to send a separate acknowledgment in the absence of outgoing frame.
94. What are the types of bridges?
1. Transparent bridge
2. Source Routing bridge
Transparent bridge - Transparent bridge keep a suitable of addresses in memory to determine where to send data
Source Routing bridge - Source Routing bridge requires the entire routing table to be included in the transmission and do not route packet intelligently.
95. What are transreceivers?
Transreceivers are combination of transmitter and receiver. Transreceivers are also called as medium attachment unit (MAU)
96. What is the function of NIC?
NIC is used to allow the computer to communicate on the network. It supports transmitting, receiving and controlling traffic with other computers on network.
97. Mention different random access techniques?
1. ALOHA
2. CSMA
3. CSMA/CD
98. What is the function of router?
Routers relay packets among multiple interconnected networks. They route packets from one network to any number of potential destination networks on an internet.
99. How does a router differ from a bridge?
Routers provide links between two separate but same type LANs and are most active at the network layer. Whereas bridges utilize addressing protocols and can affect the flow control of a single LAN; most active at the data link layer.
100. Identify the class and default subnet mask of the IP address 217.65.10.7.
It belongs to class C.
Default subnet mask – 255.255.255.192
101. What are the fields present in IP address?
Netid and Hostid.
Netid – portion of the ip address that identifies the network.
Hostid – portion of the ip address that identifies the host or router on the networks.
102. What is flow control?
How to keep a fast sender from swamping a slow receiver with data is called flow control.
103. What are the functions of transport layers?
The transport layer is responsible for reliable data delivery. Functions of transport layer
i. Transport layer breaks messages into packets
ii. It performs error recovery if the lower layers are not adequately error free.
iii.Function of flow control if not done adequately at the network layer.
iv.Function of multiplexing and demultiplexing sessions together.
v. This layer can be responsible for setting up and releasing connections across the
network.
104. What is segmentation?
When the size of the data unit received from the upper layer is too long for the network layer datagrams or datalink frame to handle, the transport protocol divides it in to smaller, usuable blocks. The dividing process is called segmentation.
105. What is Transport Control Protocol (TCP)?
The TCP/IP protocol that provides application programs with access to a connection oriented communication service. TCP offers reliable flow controlled delivery. More important TCP accommodates changing conditions in the Internet by adapting its retransmission scheme.
106. Define the term (i) Host (ii) IP
a. Host : An end user’s computer connection to a network. In an internet each computer is classified as a host or a router.
b. IP: Internet Protocol that defines both the format of packet used on a TCP/IP internet and the mechanism for routing a packet to its destination.
107. What is UDP?
User Datagram Protocol is the TCP/IP protocol that provides application program with connectionless communication service.
108. What is the segment?
The unit of data transfer between two devices using TCP is a segment.
109. What is a port?
Applications running on different hosts communicate with TCP with the help of a concept called as ports. A port is a 16 bit unique number allocated to a particular application.
110. What is Socket?
The communication structure needed for socket programming is called socket.
A port identifies a single application on a single computer.
Socket = IP address + Port number
DATA COMMUNICATION AND NETWORKS
111. How TCP differ from the sliding window protocols.
TCP differs from the sliding window protocols in the following ways:
1. When using TCP, applications treat the data sent and received as an arbitrary byte stream. The sending
- TCP module divides the byte stream into a set of packets called segments, and sends individual segments within an IP datagram.
- TCP decides where segment boundaries start and end.
2. The TCP sliding window operates at the byte level rather than the packet (or segment) level. The left and right window edges are byte pointers.
3. Segment boundaries may change at any time. TCP is free to retransmit two adjacent segments each containing 200 bytes of data as a single segment of 400 byte.
4. The size of the send and receive window change dynamically.
112. Explain how the TCP provides the reliability?
A number of mechanisms provide the reliability.
1. Checksum
2. Duplicate data detection
3. Retransmission
4. Sequencing
5. Timers
113. What is a datagram socket?
A structure designed to be used with connectionless protocols such as UDP.
114. What is congestion?
When load on network is greater than its capacity, there is congestion of data packets. Congestion occurs because routers and switches have queues or buffers.
115. Define the term Jitter.
Jitter is the variation in delay for packets belonging to the same flow.
116. What is Configuration management?
Configuration management (CM) is a field of management that focuses on establishing and maintaining consistency of a system or product's performance and its functional and physical attributes with its requirements, design, and operational information throughout its life.
117. What is Fault management?
Fault management is the set of functions that detect, isolate, and correct malfunctions in a telecommunications network, compensate for environmental changes, and include maintaining and examining error logs, accepting and acting on error detection notifications, tracing and identifying faults, carrying out sequences of diagnostics tests, correcting faults, reporting error conditions, and localizing and tracing faults by examining and manipulating database information.
118. What is Performance management?
Performance management includes activities that ensure that goals are consistently being met in an effective and efficient manner. Performance management can focus on the performance of an organization, a department, employee, or even the processes to build a product or service, as well as many other areas.
119. What is Security management?
Security Management is a broad field of management related to asset management, physical security and human resource safety functions. It entails the identification of an organization's information assets and the development, documentation and implementation of policies, standards, procedures and guidelines.
120. What is Accounting management?
Accounting Management is the practical application of management techniques to control and report on the financial health of the organization. This involves the analysis, planning, implementation, and control of programs designed to provide financial data reporting for managerial decision making. This includes the maintenance of bank accounts, developing financial statements, cash flow and financial performance analysis.
DATA COMMUNICATION AND NETWORKS

DATA BASE MANAGEMENT SYSYTEM

DATA BASE MANAGEMENT SYSYTEM

dbms
(QNO1). A relation with redundancy can be refined by ----------- using with smaller relations
that contain the same information but without redundancy
A. Decomposing it
B. Updating it
C. Inserting it
D. Deletion it
The solution is : a
(QNO2). Which of the following one is not an example of integrity constraints
A. Functional dependency
B. Multivalued dependency
C. Join dependency
D. Multilevel dependency
The solution is : d
(QNO3). Which of the following one is not caused by redundancy problems
A. Redundant storage
B. Update anomalies
C. Insertion anomalies
D. Multivalued dependency
The solution is : d
(QNO4). In a FD the right side contains only attributes that also appear on the left side is Called
________
A. Functional FD
B. Trival FD
C. Non functional FD
D. Non trival
The solution is : b
(QNO5). ________ is more than one place within a database can occur
A. Consistency
B. Redundancy
C. Durability
D. Isolation
The solution is : b
(QNO6). Some information is stored repeatedly is called
A. Update anomalies
B. Redundant storage
C. Insertion anomalies
D. Deletion anomalies
The solution is : b
(QNO7). If one copy of such repeated data is updates, an inconsistency is created unless all
copies are similarly updated is called
A. Redundant storage
B. Insertion anomalies
C. Deletion anomalies
D. Update anomalies
The solution is : d
(QNO8). It may not be possible to store certain information unless some other, unrelated
information is stored as well is called
A. Redundant storage
B. Insertion anomalies
C. Deletion anomalies
D. Update anomalies
The solution is : b
(QNO9). It may not be possible to delete certain information without losing some other,
unrelated information as well is called
A. Redundant storage
B. Insertion anomalies
C. Update anomalies
D. Deletion anomalies
The solution is : d
(QNO10). Which of the following one is example of a integrity constraints
A. Multilevel dependency
B. Insertion dependency
C. Multivalued dependency
D. Deletion dependency
The solution is : c
(QNO11). If X’ YZ then X’ Y, and X’ Z are called _______
A. Decomposition
B. Union
C. Augmentation
D. Transitivity
The solution is : a
(QNO12). If X→ YZ then X→ Y, and X→ Z are called _______
A. Decomposition
B. Union
C. Augmentation
D. Transitivity
The solution is : a
(QNO13). which rule we can used to generate trival dependencies
A. Union
B. Decomposition
C. Reflexivity
D. Augmentation
The solution is : c
(QNO14). A relation consists of replacing the relation schema by two or more relation schemas
is called
A. Decomposition of a relation schema
B. Deletion of a relation schema
C. Insertion of a relation schema
D. Redundancy of a relation schema
The solution is : a
(QNO15). If X→ Y holds, where y is the set of all attributes, and there is some subset V of X
such that V→ Y holds then X is a _______________
A. Primary key
B. Candidate key
C. Super key
D. Not a key
The solution is : c
(QNO16). _________ is a property of the meaning or semantics of the attributes in a relation
A. Multilevel dependency
B. Multivalued dependency
C. Functional dependency
D. Lossless join
The solution is : c
(QNO17). 12. If X Y, then X→ Y is called _______
A. Augmentation rule
B. Transitivity rule
C. Durability
D. Reflexivity rule
The solution is : d
(QNO18). The notation t1 .x to refers to __________
A. The projection of the tuple x onto the attribute in t1
B. The projection of the tuple t1 onto the attribute in x
C. The projection of the tuple x onto the attribute in x
D. The projection of the tuple t1 onto the attribute in t1
The solution is : a
DATA BASE MANAGEMENT SYSYTEM
(QNO19). An FD X→ Y essentially says that ______________
A. If two tuples agree on the values in attributes X they must also agree on the values in attribute
Y.
B. If two tuples agree on the values in attributes Y they must also agree on the values in attribute
X.
C. There is no relation among the attribute X and attribute Y
D. If two tuples agree on the values in attributes X they not also agree on the values in attribute
Y
The solution is : a
(QNO20). Which of the following of a given relation schema can help us to decide whether or
not to decompose it further
A. Dependency
B. Isolation
C. Normal forms
D. Durability
The solution is : c
(QNO21). If X→ Y then XZ→ YZ for any Z is called __________
A. Augmentation rule
B. Reflexivity rule
C. Transitivity rule
D. Decomposition
The solution is : a
(QNO22). If X→ Y and Y→ Z, then X→ Z __________
A. Reflexivity rule
B. Augmentation rule
C. Transitivity rule
D. Union
The solution is : c
(QNO23). Which property enables us to recover any instance of the decomposed relation from
corresponding instances of the smaller relations
A. Decomposition
B. Functional dependency
C. Lossless join
D. Multilevel dependency
The solution is : c
(QNO24). Which property enables us to enforce any constraint on the original relation by simply
enforcing some constraints on each of the smaller relations
A. Decomposition
B. Dependency preserving
C. Lossless join
D. Functional dependency
The solution is : b
(QNO25). Which one is a kind of integrity constraint that generalizes the concept of the key
A. Multilevel dependency
B. Multivalued dependency
C. Lossless join
D. Functional dependency
The solution is : d
(QNO26). X→ Y means-----------
A. X functionally determines Y
B. Y functionally determines X
C. X not functionally determines Y
D. X functionally determines X
The solution is : a
(QNO27). In some situations decomposition could actually improve _________
A. Dependency
B. Performance
C. Flexibility
D. Durability
The solution is : b
(QNO28). The set of all FD's implied by a given set F of FD's is called the _________
A. Decomposition
B. Dependency
C. Closure of F
D. Lossless join
The solution is : c
(QNO29). In ______ normal form contain one of the following statements is true
X→ A
A ε X: that is, it is trival FD or
X is a super key
A. First normal form
B. Second normal form
C. 3rd normal form
D. BCNF
The solution is : d
(QNO30). In _________ normal form contain one of the following statements is true
X→ A
A ε X: that is, it is trival FD or
X is a super key Or
A is part of some key for R
A. First normal form
B. Second normal form
C. BCNF
D. 3rd normal form
The solution is : d
(QNO31). _______ is a process of grouping attributes into well structured relations
A. Functional dependency
B. Normalization
C. Decomposition
D. Multivalued dependency
The solution is : b
(QNO32). A relation is in first normal form if every field contains only _____________
A. Multiple values
B. Duplicate values
C. Atomic values
D. Lists
The solution is : c
(QNO33). A table is said to be 2NF it is most be free from ____________
A. Functional dependencies
B. Partial dependencies
C. Transitive dependencies
D. Multivalued dependency
The solution is : b
(QNO34). The 3rd normal form must be free from ___________
A. Join dependency
B. Functional dependency
C. Transitive dependency
D. Multivalued dependency
The solution is : c
(QNO35). The 4th normal from must be free from
A. Multivalued dependencies
B. Loss less join
C. Functional dependency
D. Non functional dependency
The solution is : a
(QNO36). Normalization is a formal technique for analyzing relations based on their
______________
A. Primary key and FDs
B. Super key and FDs
C. Candidate key and FDs
D. Only foreign key
The solution is : a
(QNO37). First normal form to fifth normal form the redundancy will be ____________
A. Increased
B. Reduced
C. Moderate
D. No change
The solution is : b
(QNO38). ------------ is a constraint according to which the presence of certain rows in a table
implies the presence of certain other rows
A. Full Functional dependency
B. Multivalued dependency
C. Transitive dependency
D. Join dependency
The solution is : d
(QNO39). If an FD X→ Y holds over a relation R and X ) Y is empty, the decomposition of R
into R-Y and XY is __________
A. Loss less join
B. Loosely join
C. Multivalued dependency
D. Functional dependency
The solution is : a
(QNO40). ------------ allows us to enforce all FDs by examine a single relation instance on each
insertion or modification of a tuple
A. Loosely join
B. Dependency preserving decomposition
C. Decomposition
D. Multivalued dependency
The solution is : b
(QNO41). The decomposition of relation schema R with FDs F into schemas with attribute sets
X and Y is ____________ if (Fx ∪ Fy)+ = F+
A. Dependency preserving
B. Decomposition
C. Functional dependency
D. Loss less join
The solution is : a
(QNO42). If X →→ Y then X→→R-XY is called
A. MVD Complementation
B. MVD Augmentation
C. MVD Transitivity
D. Replication
The solution is : a
(QNO43). which rule we can used to get the nontrivial dependencies
A. Union
B. Decomposition
C. Reflexivity
D. Transitivity
The solution is : d
(QNO44). A decomposition of R into two schemas with attribute sets X and Y is said to be a
_________
A. Functional dependency
B. Trival dependency
C. Lossless join decomposition with respect to F
D. Multivalued dependency with respect to F
The solution is : c
(QNO45). -------------- dependency is an indirect functional dependency one in which X→ Z
only by virtue of X→ Z and Y→ Z
A. Full Functional dependency
B. Trival Functional dependency
C. Transitive dependency
D. Multivalued dependency
The solution is : c
(QNO46). The 4th and 5th normal forms deals specifically with the representation of __________
relationships among attributes
A. Many to Many and One to Many
B. Many to One and One to One
C. One to One and Many to Many
D. No relationship
The solution is : a
(QNO47). a composition of R into two schemas with attribute set X and Y is said to be a
__________
A. functional dependency
B. trival dependency
C. loss less join decomposition with respect to F
D. multi valued dependency with respect to F
The solution is : c
(QNO48). There must be no trival join dependencies that do not allow from the key constraints
A. 4th NF
B. BCNF
C. 5th NF
D. Domain key normal form
The solution is : c
(QNO49). . If X→ Y and X→ Z, then X→ YZ ___________
A. Reflexivity rule
B. Augmentation rule
C. Transitivity rule
D. Union
The solution is : d
(QNO50). Armstrong inference rules are _________
A. Sound, complete
B. Incomplete, sound
C. Complete, no sound
D. Incomplete, no sound
The solution is : a
(QNO51). If you can have two phone number values and two email address values, then you
Should not have them in the same table, which normal form it contains
A. 1st NF
B. 2nd NF
C. 3rdNF
D. 4th NF
The solution is : c
(QNO52). If a relation schema is in BCNF and at least one of its keys consists of a single
attribute, it is also in ------------ normal form
A. 3rd normal from
B. BCNF
C. 4th normal from
D. 5thnormal form
The solution is : c
(QNO53). Consider a relation schema ABCD and suppose that the FD A→ BCD and the MVD
B→→ C is given. Find which normal form it can be contained
A. BCNF
B. 4th normal form
C. 5th normal form
D. Not a BCNF
The solution is : a
(QNO54). Join dependency (JD) {R1,R2,__________Rn} is a ______________
A. Trival JD
B. Non trival JD
C. Multi valued JD
D. Multi level JD
The solution is : a
(QNO55). X→→ Y is a -------------- MVD if Y X R or XY=R
A. Trival MVD
B. Non trival MVD
C. Replication
D. Decomposition
The solution is : a
(QNO56). if X→→Y and there is a W such that W)Y is empty, W→ Z, and Y Z then X → Y
is called
A. MVD Complementation
B. Replication
C. Coalescence
D. MVD augmentation
The solution is : c
(QNO57). If X→→ Y and W Z, then WX →→ XZ it is called
A. MVD Complementation
B. MVD Transitivity
C. Replication
D. MVD augmentation
The solution is : d
(QNO58). If X→→ Y and Y →→ Z then X→→ (Z-Y) it is called
A. MVD Complementation
B. MVD Transitivity
C. Replication
D. MVD augmentation
The solution is : b
(QNO59). If X → Y then X→→ Y is called
A. MVD Complementation
B. MVD Transitivity
C. Replication
D. MVD augmentation
The solution is : c
(QNO60). A join dependency is a further generalization of ____________
A. Multi valued dependencies
B. Multilevel dependencies
C. Functional dependencies
D. Lossless join
The solution is : a
(QNO61). Which of the following are not contain set of sound and complete interface rules for
join dependencies
A. Functional dependencies
B. Multilevel dependencies
C. Join dependencies
D. Multivalued dependencies
The solution is : c
(QNO62). Each transaction run by itself with no concurrent execution of other transactions. This
property is called.
A. Atomicity
B. Consistency
C. Isolation
D. Durability
The solution is : b
(QNO63). Users should be able to understand a transaction with out considering the effect of
other concurrently executing transactions even if the DBMS interleaves the actions of several
transactions. This property is called.
A. Atomicity
B. Consistency
C. Isolation
D. Durability
The solution is : c
(QNO64). After a transaction completes successfully the changes it has made to the data base
persist, even if there are system failures. This property is called _____________
A. Atomicity
B. Consistency
C. Isolation
D. Durability
The solution is : d
DATA BASE MANAGEMENT SYSYTEM
(QNO65). ___________is a logical unit of data base processing that includes one or more
database access Operations.
A. Serializabity
B. Recoverability
C. Transaction
D. Normalization
The solution is : c
(QNO66). Which of the following is not an ACID property?
A. Atomicity
B. Consistency
C. Durability
D. Serializability
The solution is : d
(QNO67). Either all actions are carried out none are called ____________
A. Atomicity
B. Consistency
C. Isolation
D. Durability
The solution is : a
(QNO68). Which state contains signal unsuccessful end of transaction changes applied to
database must be Undone.
A. Commit-Transaction
B. Roll back
C. End transaction
D. Begin transaction
The solution is : b
(QNO69). Which state contain signals successful end of transaction changes can be committed
to database.
A. Commit-transaction
B. Roll back
C. End transaction
D. Begin transaction
The solution is : a
(QNO70). Which state contain marks start of transaction?
A. Commit-transaction
B. Roll back
C. Begin transaction
D. End transaction
The solution is : c
(QNO71). Which state contains marks the end of the read or write operations start checking
whether every thing went according to plan.
A. End transaction
B. Begin transaction
C. Roll back
D. Commit-transaction
The solution is : a
(QNO72). Which schedule contains the operations from a set of concurrent transactions are inter
leaved .
A. Serial schedule
B. Non serial schedule
C. Recoverable schedule
D. Non recoverable schedule
The solution is : d
(QNO73). . If a schedule consists of a two transactions, if transaction t2 could read a database
about object A that has been modified by another transaction which has not yet committed which
anomalies can be occur.
A. WR conflict
B. RW conflict
C. WW conflict
D. RR conflict
The solution is : a
(QNO74). When transactions are executing concurrently in an interleaved fashion then the order
of execution of operations from the various transactions is known as ____________
A. Serializability
B. Concurrency
C. Schedule
D. Dependency
The solution is : c
(QNO75). Which schedule contain the operations of each transaction are executed consecutively
with out any inter leaved operations from other transactions.
A. Serial schedule
B. Non serial schedule
C. Recoverable schedule
D. Non recoverable schedule
The solution is : a
(QNO76). Average time taken to complete a transaction is called.
A. Response time
B. Execution time
C. System throughput
D. Delay time
The solution is : a
(QNO77). The DBMS which can be used to ensures the executed schedule though not it self
serializable is equivalent to same serializable schedule.
A. Recovery method
B. Concurrency control
C. Transaction
D. Durability
The solution is : b
(QNO78). The RW conflict also called as _______________.
A. Repeatable read
B. Un repeatable read
C. Repeatable write
D. Directly read
The solution is : b
(QNO79). A schedule that contains either an abort or a commit for each transaction whose
actions are listed in it is called as_________ .
A. Concurrent schedule
B. Serial schedule
C. Non serial schedule
D. Complete schedule
The solution is : d
(QNO80). The average number of transactions completed in a given time is called.
A. Response time
B. Execution time
C. System throughput
D. Delay time
The solution is : c
(QNO81). WW conflict also called as _________.
A. Dirty read
B. Repeatable read
C. Blind write
D. Repeatable write
The solution is : c
(QNO82). What are the possible violations of an application program that uses isolation level
'read uncommitted'
A. Dirty read problem
B. Non repeatable read problem
C. Phantom phenomenon
D. Blind read
The solution is : c
(QNO83). A schedule is having only commits read operations only and a value written by
Transaction t' cannot be over written by other transaction until 't' either aborts or commits then
the schedule is called as.
A. Cascade less schedule
B. Serializable schedule
C. Strict schedule
D. Recoverable schedule
The solution is : c
(QNO84). In which type of locking, no lock is released until after abort or commit.
A. Basis 2PL
B. Strict 2PL
C. Conservative 2PL
D. Rigorous 2PL
The solution is : d
(QNO85). In which locking protocol is deadlock tree formed but not very realistic.
A. Basic 2PL
B. Conservative 2PL
C. Strict 2PL
D. Rigorous 2PL
The solution is : b
(QNO86). A schedule consists of two transactions if transaction t2 read a data item value that can
already written by transaction t1.if transaction t2 is committed before t1 committed then
transaction t1 is aborted. Then it is called.
A. Recoverable
B. Un recoverable
C. Serializable
D. Non serializable
The solution is : b
(QNO87). Which graph can be useful to capture all potential conflicts between the transactions
in a schedule.
A. Precedence graph
B. Directed graph
C. In directed graph
D. Cyclic graph
The solution is : a
(QNO88). Precedence graph also called as ___________
A. Non serializability graph
B. Serializability graph
C. Recoverability graph
D. Non recoverability gra
The solution is : b
(QNO89). Which of the following is not conflict operation.
A. Reads and write from same transaction
B. Reads from different transactions
C. Reads and write from different transactions on different data items
D. Reads and writes from different transactions on same data item
The solution is : d
(QNO90). If inter leaved schedule produces the same result as that of the serial schedule then the
inter leaved schedule is said to be called _______________
A. Serializability
B. Result serializability
C. Recoverability
D. View serializability
The solution is : a
(QNO91). In a schedule's' consists of a two transactions t1, t2.t2 read a data item value that can
produced by T1, T2 is committed after the T1 is committed then it is called
A. Unrecoverable
B. Recoverable
C. Conflict
D. Nonserializable
The solution is : b
DATA BASE MANAGEMENT SYSYTEM
(QNO92). If two schedules involve the action of the same transactions and they order every pair
of conflicting actions of two committed transactions in the same way then the two schedules are
said to be ________.
A. View equivalent
B. Conflict equivalent
C. Non conflict
D. Result conflict
The solution is : b
(QNO93). The strict 2PL protocol allows only ____________ schedules.
A. Conflict serializable
B. Non conflict serializable
C. Recoverable
D. Non recoverable
The solution is : a
(QNO94). Which of the following ensures atomicity property.
A. Transaction manager
B. User
C. Concurrency control system
D. Recovery manager
The solution is : d
(QNO95). In which type of locking, no lock is released until after abort or commit
A. Basis 2PL
B. Strict 2PL
C. Conservative 2PL
D. Rigorous 2PL
The solution is : d
(QNO96). In which locking protocol is deadlock tree formed but not very realistic
A. Basic 2PL
B. Conservative 2PL
C. Strict 2PL
D. Rigorous 2PL
The solution is : b
(QNO97). The most widely used locking protocol is called
A. Basis 2PL
B. Strict 2PL
C. Conservative 2PL
D. Rigorous 2PL
The solution is : b
(QNO98). ______ is a database object that is frequently accessed and modified and causes a lot
of blocking delays
A. Thrashes
B. Hotspots
C. Deadlocks
D. Save points
The solution is : b
(QNO99). In which locking protocol, locking all items needed before execution begins by pre
declaring its read and write set
A. Basic 2PL
B. Conservative 2PL
C. Strict 2PL
D. Rigorous 2PL
The solution is : b
(QNO100). __________ is a small book keeping object associated with a database object
A. Protocol
B. Lock
C. Transactions
D. Query
The solution is : b
(QNO101). ________ is a set of rules to be followed by each transaction to ensure that, even
though actions or several transactions might be interleaved
A. Locking protocol
B. Deadlock
C. Recoverable
D. Non recoverable
The solution is : a
(QNO102). In which locking protocol transaction does not release it's write locks until after
aborts or commit
A. Basis 2PL
B. Strict 2PL
C. Conservative 2PL
D. Rigorous 2PL
The solution is : b
(QNO103). Transaction T1 sets an exclusive lock on object A, T2 sets an exclusive lock on B. T1
requests an exclusive lock on B and is queued and T2 requests an exclusive lock on A and is
queued. Now T1 is waiting for T2 to release its lock and T2 is waiting for T1 to release its lock.
Then it is called ___________
A. Deadlock
B. Deadlock tree
C. 2PL
D. Recoverable
The solution is : a
(QNO104). Which method can be used to identify the deadlocks?
A. Cyclic graph
B. Directed graph
C. Undirected graph
D. Partial ordered graph
The solution is : a
(QNO105). In which condition, the read operation is executed and R-timestamp (Q) is set to the
maximum of R-timestamp (Q) and Ts (Ti)?
A. Ts (Ti) >= W-Timestamp (Q)
B. Ts (Ti) < W-Timestamp (Q)
C. Ts (Ti) < R-Timestamp (Q)
D. Ts (Ti) > R-Timestamp (Q)
The solution is : a
(QNO106). What is the condition ignore absolute write rule?
A. Ts (Ti) >= W-Timestamp (Q)
B. Ts (Ti) < W-Timestamp (Q)
C. Ts (Ti) < R-Timestamp (Q)
D. Ts (Ti) > R-Timestamp (Q)
The solution is : b
(QNO107). Which one ensures that any conflicting read and write operations are executed in
timestamp order?
A. Timestamp ordering protocol
B. Lock based protocol
C. Graph based protoco
D. Validation based protocol
The solution is : a
(QNO108). In which protocol, deadlock cannot be occurred?
A. Lock based protocol
B. Timestamp ordering protocol
C. Graph-based protocol
D. Validation-based protocol
The solution is : b
(QNO109). Which of the following one is non primitive?
A. Wait-die
B. Wound-wait
C. Deadlock
D. Conflict can occur
The solution is : a
(QNO110). With each transaction T1 in the system, a unit timestamp is assigned and it is
denoted by Ts (Ti) when a new transaction Tj enters the system then, the timestamp ordering
schema is called
A. Ts (Tj) < Ts (Ti)
B. Ts (Ti) > Ts (Tj)
C. Ts (Ti) < Ts (Tj)
D. Ts (Tj) > Ts (Ti)
The solution is : c
(QNO111). Concurrency can be increased by the introduction of which lock
A. Update lock
B. Exclusive lock
C. Shared lock
D. Add lock
The solution is : a
(QNO112). If a transaction, Ti requests a lock and transaction Tj holds a conflicting lock, if Ti
has higher priority than Tj, it is allowed to wait otherwise it is aborted, then it is called
A. wait-die
B. wound-wait
C. Deadlock
D. Conflict can occur
The solution is : a
(QNO113). If a transaction, Ti requests a lock and transaction Tj holds a conflicting lock if Ti has
higher priority, abort Tj otherwise if Ti waits then it is called
A. Wait-die
B. Wound-wait
C. Deadlock
D. Conflict can occur
The solution is : b
(QNO114). Which of the following one is non primitive?
A. Wait-die
B. Wound-wait
C. Deadlock
D. Conflict can occur
The solution is : b
(QNO115). Intention exclusive lock conflicts with __________________
A. Shared and exclusive lock
B. Shared and intention exclusive lock
C. Exclusive and intention shared lock
D. Intention exclusive and intention shared lock
The solution is : a
(QNO116). Which of the following protocols always ensures recoverable schedules?
A. Timestamp ordering protocol
B. Multiple granularity protocol
C. Strict timestamp protocol
D. Timestamp protocol with Thomas Write rule
The solution is : c
(QNO117). Intention shared lock conflicts only with ____________
A. Exclusive lock
B. Intention sharing
C. Shared lock
D. Extension Exclusive
The solution is : a
(QNO118). A transaction needs to read an entire file and modify a few of the records in it which
it can be read.
A. Shared and exclusive lock
B. Shared and intention exclusive lock
C. Exclusive and intention shared lock
D. Intention exclusive and intention shared lock
The solution is : b
(QNO119). After the transaction requests a certain number of locks, at that granularity so that
obtaining locks at the next higher granularity in which procedure is called
A. Granularity locking
B. Lock escalation
C. Lock intention
D. Predicate locking
The solution is : b
(QNO120). Which locking allows us to efficiently set locks on objects that contain other
objects?
A. Multiple granularity
B. Timestamp based locking
C. Graph based locking
D. Validation based locking
The solution is : a
(QNO121). Multiple granularity locking must be used with _______ to ensure serializability.
A. Concurrency control
B. Tree-based protocol
C. Two-phase locking protocol
D. Graph-based protocol
The solution is : c
(QNO122). Which of the following lock is not contained in multiple granularity locking?
A. Exclusive lock
B. Intention sharing
C. Shared lock
D. Extension Exclusive
The solution is : d
(QNO123). To lock a node in shared mode, a transaction must first lock all its ancestors in
_______________
A. Shared
B. Exclusive
C. Intention shared
D. Intention exclusive
The solution is : c
(QNO124). In multiple granularity protocol, at a particular data item, transaction Ti is holding
shared intention exclusive lock. At the same data item, transaction Tj is allowed to request which
of the following locks?
A. Intention exclusive lock
B. Intention shared lock
C. Shared lock
D. Shared intention exclusive lock
The solution is : b
(QNO125). To lock a node in exclusive mode, a transaction must first lock all its ancestors in
_____________
A. Shared mode
B. Exclusive mode
C. Intention shared mode
D. Intention exclusive mode
The solution is : d
(QNO126). All log records for a given transaction are organized in a ____________
A. Stacks
DATA BASE MANAGEMENT SYSYTEM
B. Queues
C. Linked list
D. Trees
The solution is : c
(QNO127). In a schedule consists of a 2 transactions Ti, Tj. Transaction Tj reads a data item
values that can already written by Ti, transaction Tj is committed before transaction Ti commits,
and then it is called _____________
A. Serial schedule
B. Recoverable schedule
C. Non recoverable schedule
D. Non serial schedule
The solution is : c
(QNO128). Which of the following phase not contained in recovery algorithm
A. Analysis phase
B. Design phase
C. Redo phase
D. Undo phase
The solution is : b
(QNO129). In which phase recovery algorithm identifies dirty paged in the buffer pool and
active transactions at the time of the crash
A. Redo phase
B. Undo phase
C. Analysis phase
D. Design phase
The solution is : c
(QNO130). Which one maintains some information during normal execution of transactions to
enable it to perform its task in the event of a failure
A. Recovery manager
B. Transaction manager
C. Log file
D. Concurrency control
The solution is : a
(QNO131). A log of all modifications to the database is saved on ___________
A. Stable storage
B. Concurrency control
C. Recovery manager
D. Log file
The solution is : a
(QNO132). Which one enables the recovery manager to undo the actions of aborted and
incomplete transactions and redo the actions of committed transactions
A. Stable storage
B. Log
C. Rollback
D. Cascading
The solution is : b
(QNO133). Which one saves information about active transactions and dirty buffer pool pages
Also helps reduce the time taken to recover from a crash
A. Log
B. Cross pointing
C. Check pointing
D. Recovery manager
The solution is : c
(QNO134). To recover the system which command can be used
A. Recovery
B. Rollback
C. Abort
D. Commit
The solution is : b
(QNO135). Which of the following one is a recovery algorithm
A. Wait for graph
B. ARIES
C. Strict 2PL
D. Regorious 2PL
The solution is : b
(QNO136). Computer storage that is not lost when the power is turned off then the storage is
called
A. nonvolatile stroge
B. volatile stroge
C. stable stroge
D. main momery
The solution is : a
(QNO137). Which of the following one is not a nonvolatile memory
A. Flash memory
B. Magnetic bubble memory
C. Hard disk
D. Main memory.
The solution is : d
(QNO138). Any change to a database is first recorded in the log then it is called
A. Stable storage
B. Recovery
C. Write ahead logging
D. Compensation storage
The solution is : c
(QNO139). Every page in the database contains the LSN of the most recent log record that
describes a change to this page. This log sequence number is called _____________
A. Log sequence
B. PageLSN
C. RecordLSN
D. DatabseLSN
The solution is : b
(QNO140). Which h0 of the following field is not contain in log record
A. PrevLSN
B. PageLSN
C. End
D. Type
The solution is : c
(QNO141). Which one can be used to written just before the change recorded in an update log
record is undone
A. Log record
B. Compensation
C. Log tail
D. Write ahead logging
The solution is : b
(QNO142). Most remote backup services will use a ________________ bit encryption
A. 128-448
B. 126-440
C. 256-280
D. 259-512
The solution is : a
(QNO143). Log sequence number simply be the address of _________________
A. Last byte of the log record
B. First byte of the log record
C. First bit of the log record
D. Last bit of the log record
The solution is : b
(QNO144). Which of the following action is not written in log record
A. Undoing on update
B. Redo an update
C. Updating a page
D. End
The solution is : b
(QNO145). The most recent portion of the log is called
A. List
B. Recovery
C. Log head
D. Log tail
The solution is : d
(QNO146). Every log record is given a unique id called
A. Sequence number
B. Unique number
C. Log sequence number
D. Log record number
The solution is : c
(QNO147). Which of the field is common to all log records
A. Before image
B. Offset
C. Type
D. Length
The solution is : c
(QNO148). Which of the following field for update log records
A. PrevLSN
B. TransID
C. Type
D. Offset
The solution is : d
(QNO149). Which following one not contained in Buffer pool information table
A. Offset
B. Pageid
C. Frame no
D. Dirty
The solution is : b
(QNO150). Space on disk is managed by
A. Disk space manager
B. Memory manager
C. Record space manager
D. Record space manager
The solution is : a
(QNO151). Data is read into memory for processing and written to disk for persistent storage by
A. Storage manager
B. Buffer manager
C. Record manager
D. File manager
The solution is : b
(QNO152). The disk space manager keeps track of the pages in use by the _____________
A. Record layer
B. File layer
C. Physical layer
D. Logical layer
The solution is : b
(QNO153). The file layer stores the records in a file in a collection of __________
A. Disk manager
B. Record pages
C. Memory pages
D. File pages
The solution is : a
(QNO154). The unit of information read from or written to disk is called
A. File
B. Data
C. Program
D. Page
The solution is : d
(QNO155). Disks are most important of_________ devices
A. Internal storage
B. External storage
C. Unit storage
D. Random storage
The solution is : b
(QNO156). Tapes are which type of devices
A. Sequential access
B. Random access
C. Physical data access
D. Logical data access
The solution is : a
(QNO157). Each record in a file has a unique identifier called
A. Record name
B. Record number
C. Record ID
D. File name
The solution is : c
(QNO158). How can we identify the disk address of the page containing the record
A. Pid
B. Rid
C. Fid
D. Rnumber
The solution is : b
DATA BASE MANAGEMENT SYSYTEM
(QNO159). _________ is an important abstraction in DBMS
A. Record of files
B. File of records
C. Files
D. Records
The solution is : b
(QNO160). Which are allows us to efficiently retrieve all records that satisfy search conditions
on the search key fields of the index
A. Record
B. Search key
C. Heap file
D. Index
The solution is : d
(QNO161). Which operation allows us to step through all the records in the file one at a time
A. Index
B. Scan
C. Heap
D. Search key
The solution is : b
(QNO162). The file layer stores the records in a file in a collection of _________
A. Random file
B. Sequential file
C. Heap file
D. Disk file
The solution is : c
(QNO163). Records stored in an index file is teamed as _________
A. Record entry
B. Key entry
C. File entry
D. Data entry
The solution is : d
(QNO164). Which one can be used instead of a stored file or an unordered file of records
A. Heap file organization
B. Indexed file organization
C. Search key
D. Hash file organization
The solution is : b
(QNO165). Records in a heap file are stored in
A. Contiguous order
B. Random order
C. Sequential order
D. Head order
The solution is : b
(QNO166). An index is a _____________
A. Storage area
B. Array of records
C. Data structures
D. Collection of records
The solution is : b
(QNO167). Which key is used for finding records _________
A. Search key
B. Find key
C. Key
D. Record key
The solution is : a
(QNO168). Which data structure organizes data records on disk to optimize certain kinds of
retrieval operations.
A. record
B. index
C. file
D. directory
The solution is : b
(QNO169). Which one must keep track of the pages allocated for the file
A. Heap file
B. File manager
C. Index file
D. File of records
The solution is : b
(QNO170). Which one is an important abstraction in a DBMS and is implemented by the files
and access methods layer of the code
A. index file
B. heap file
C. file of records
D. file manager
The solution is : c
(QNO171). A relation is typically stored as a _________
A. File of records
B. Index
C. Disk pages
D. Directories
The solution is : a
(QNO172). If two data entries are containing the same value for the search key field Associated
with the index then it is called
A. Identical data
B. Duplicate data
C. Error data
D. Unequal data
The solution is : b
(QNO173). Which one contains the data file
A. Data records
B. Data entries
C. Index entries
D. Both data records and data entries
The solution is : a
(QNO174). When a file is organized so that the ordering of data records is the same as or close
to the ordering of data entries in some index, then it is called
A. Clustered
B. Indexed
C. Heapified
D. Uncluttered
The solution is : a
(QNO175). When a file is organized so that the ordering of data records is not same as can not
close to the ordering of data entries in some index then it is called as
A. clustered
B. uncluttered
C. semi clustered
D. Fully clustered
The solution is : b
(QNO176). Which are based on the cost of using an index to answer a range search queues Can
vary tremendously
A. search key
B. the index is clustered
C. the index is uncluttered
D. file organization
The solution is : b
(QNO177). An index on a set of fields that not includes the primary key then it is called.
A. Secondary index
B. Index
C. Primary key
D. Ternary index
The solution is : c
(QNO178). An index on a set of fields that not includes the primary key then it is called.
A. Secondary index
B. Index
C. Primary key
D. Ternary index
The solution is : a
DATA BASE MANAGEMENT SYSYTEM
(QNO179). Which index contains the duplicates
A. Secondary index
B. Primary index
C. Ternary index
D. Both primary and secondary
The solution is : a
(QNO180). If we know that no duplicates exists in data, that is we know that the search key
contains some candidate key then we call the index is ----------.
A. unique index
B. duplicate index
C. error index
D. equal index
The solution is : a
(QNO181). The index file consist of a ___________
A. Only index entries
B. Only data entries
C. Only data records
D. Both index and data entries
The solution is : d
(QNO182). Which key can be used to fields that uniquely identify a record
A. Search key
B. Super key
C. Candidate key
D. Hash key
The solution is : c
(QNO183). To facilitate retrieval of such qualifying entries during search all leaf pages are
maintained in a _____________
A. stacks
B. queues
C. linked lists
D. double linked lists
The solution is : d
(QNO184). Which function can be used to determine the bucket to which a record belongs
A. Index function
B. Hash function
C. Binary function
D. Heap function
The solution is : b
(QNO185). Which structure can be adjusts gracefully to inserts and deletes and allow us to
retrieve the page containing a record in one to two I/O's are known as
A. Hash-based index structure
B. Tree- based index structure
C. Graph- based index structure
D. Graphical- based index structure
The solution is : a
(QNO186). Which pages contain node pointers separated by search key values
A. Only root pages
B. Leaf pages
C. Non leaf pages
D. Only middle level parents
The solution is : c
(QNO187). Which one is an index structure that ensures that all paths from the root to a leaf in a
given tree are of the same length, i.e., the structure is always balanced in height
A. binary tree
B. tree indexing
C. B+ tree
D. B tree
The solution is : c
(QNO188). Which technique can be used to organize records to quickly find records that have a
given search key value
A. Hashing
B. Indexing
C. File ordering
D. Heap
The solution is : a
(QNO189). In hash based indexing the records in a file are grouped then it is called
A. Hashing
B. Indexing
C. Buckets
D. Tree
The solution is : c
(QNO190). Where a bucket consists of a ______________
A. Primary page
B. Secondary page
C. Index
D. Error page
The solution is : a
(QNO191). Which one can be used to a hash based index structure allows us to retrieve the
primary page for the bucket in one or two disk i/o's
A. Page number
B. Index number
C. Bucket number
D. Record number
The solution is : b
(QNO192). In tree based indexing which level contains the data entries
A. Root level
B. All the parent nodes contains
C. Leaf level
D. Middle level
The solution is : c
(QNO193). The average number of children for a non leaf node is called the_______ of the tree
A. balance
B. fun in
C. fun out
D. height
The solution is : c
(QNO194). Search with range selection cost includes the
A. Cost of search only
B. Cost of retrieving the set of records only
C. Cost of deleting the set of records only
D. Cost of search plus the cost of retrieving the cost of records
The solution is : d
(QNO195). Which file has good storage efficiency and supports fast scanning and insertion of
Records
A. Hash file
B. Heap file
C. Index file
D. Clustered files
The solution is : b
(QNO196). In hash file organization which function can be used to map a record into a range of
Numbers
A. Search key
B. Hash function
C. Index function
D. Structure function
The solution is : b
(QNO197). In search with range selection the cost of the search includes the____________
A. The cost of retrieving the set of records
B. The cost of fetching the first page containing qualifying un matching records
C. The cost of fetching the first page containing qualifying matching records
D. The cost of removing the set of records
The solution is : c
(QNO198). If records to be deleted are specified by an equality or range condition, if the
condition is specified on the sort field, the first qualifying record can be located
using_____________
A. Linear search
B. Binary search
C. Random search
D. Sequential search
The solution is : b
(QNO199). Which of the following operation is not a file organization operation
A. Search with equality selection
B. Search with add selection
C. Insert a record
D. Delete a record
The solution is : b
(QNO200). Which operation can be used to fetch all records that satisfy an equality selection
A. Scan with equality selection
B. Scan with range selection
C. Scan
D. Insert a record
The solution is : a
(QNO201). Disk systems allow us to read a block of contiguous pages in a single I/O request
then it is called
A. Indexing
B. Hashing
C. Blocked access
D. Fun out
The solution is : c
(QNO202). If records to be deleted are specified by an equality or range condition, the cost of
deletion depends ____________
A. The number of pages
B. The number undeleted records
C. The number of qualifying records
D. The number of un qualifying records
The solution is : c
(QNO203). The number of leaf pages in an index depends on______________
A. Index size
B. Non leaf nodes
C. The size of a data entry
D. Heap file
The solution is : c
(QNO204). Index only evaluation on which it works equally, efficiently
A. Clustered indexes
B. Un clustered indexes
C. Hashing
D. B +trees
The solution is : b
DATA BASE MANAGEMENT SYSYTEM
(QNO205). A composite index is also likely to be larger than a_______________ search key
index
A. Multi attribute
B. Single attribute
C. Composite
D. Range
The solution is : b
(QNO206). The search key for an index contain several fields then such keys are called.
A. Search key
B. Heap key
C. Composite search key
D. Decomposite search key
The solution is : c
(QNO207). In which data entries contain more information about data record, he opportunities
for index only evaluation strategies are increased
A. Range index
B. Equality index
C. Composite index
D. Selection index
The solution is : c
(QNO208). Hash based indexing techniques are optimizes only for ____________________
selections
A. Optimal selection
B. Equality selection
C. Range selection
D. Un equality selection
The solution is : b
(QNO209). The tree based indexing techniques which kinds of selection conditions supports
efficiently
A. Only range selection
B. Optimal selection
C. Un equality selection
D. Both equality and range selection
The solution is : d
(QNO210). Indexed sequential access method which one alters
A. Random access files
B. Benefits of sequential allocation of leaf pages
C. Sequential allocation of root page
D. Sequential allocation of non-leaf pages
The solution is : b
(QNO211). Which can be used to speed up certain queries, if we recognize that the DBMS will
exploit.
A. Uncluttered indexes
B. Clustered indexes
C. Hashing indexes
D. Heap files
The solution is : a
(QNO212). If the search key is composite, in which each field in the search key is bound to a
constant
A. Range query
B. Equality query
C. Composite query
D. Selection query
The solution is : b
(QNO213). If the search key is composite, in which, not all fields in the search key bound to
constants
A. Range query
B. Equality query
C. Composite query
D. Selection query
The solution is : a
(QNO214). how much space occupancy maintained by B+ trees
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 65%
D. 67%
The solution is : c
(QNO215). A binary search of the index file is much faster than______________
A. Binary search of header file
B. Binary search of root file
C. Binary search of index file
D. Binary search of data file
The solution is : d
(QNO216). In which data entries are in the leaf pages of the tree and additional overflow
A. Clustered index
B. Un clustered index
C. ISAM index
D. Tree index
The solution is : c
(QNO217). Each tree index page contains__________
A. One pointer more than number of keys
B. One pointer not more than number of keys
C. One pointer not more than number of indexes
D. One pointer more than number of indexes
The solution is : a
(QNO218). What mean by ISAM
A. Indexed symmetric access method
B. Indexed sequential access method
C. Indexed sequential assign method
D. Indexed symmetric assign method
The solution is : b
(QNO219). To modify a page in tree, it must be locked in_____________
A. Shared mode
B. Exclusive mode
C. Write mode
D. No lock is need
The solution is : b
(QNO220). __________ is a balanced tree in which the internal nodes direct the search and the
leaf nodes contain the data entries
A. B trees
B. B+ trees
C. R tree
D. AVL tree
The solution is : b
(QNO221). In B + tree the index file contains _______________
A. Index entries and data entries
B. Only index entries
C. Only data entries
D. Information about root node
The solution is : a
(QNO222). In B + tree every node contains m entries, where d is_____________
A. d
B. d>=m<=2d
C. d>=m>=2d
D. d<=m<=2d
The solution is : d
(QNO223). In B+ trees non leaf nodes with m index entries, how many pointers it can contain
A. m-1
B. m-2
C. m+1
D. m-3
The solution is : c
DATA BASE MANAGEMENT SYSYTEM