Computer General Shortcuts

Computer General Shortcuts 

• F2 [Rename the selected item]
• F3 [Search for a file or folder]
• F4 [Display the address bar list in File Explorer]
• F5 [Refresh the active window]
• F6 [Cycle through screen elements in a window or on the       desktop]
• F10 [Activate the Menu bar in the active app]
• ALT + F4 [Close the active item, or exit the active app]
• ALT + ESC [Cycle through items in the order in which they were opened]
• ALT + Underlined Letter in menus and dialog box options [Perform the command for that letter]
• ALT + ENTER [Display properties for the selected item]
• ALT + SPACEBAR [Open the shortcut menu for the active window]
• ALT + LEFT ARROW [Back]
• ALT + RIGHT ARROW [Forward]
• ALT + PAGE UP [Move up one screen]
• ALT + PAGE DOWN [Move down one screen]
• ALT + TAB [Switch between open apps (except desktop apps)]
• CTRL + F4 [Close the active document (in apps that allow you to have multiple documents open simultaneously)]
• CTRL + A [Select all items in a document or window]
• CTRL + C or CTRL + INSERT [Copy the selected item]
• CTRL + D / DELETE [DELETE the selected item and move it to the Recycle Bin]
• CTRL + R or F5 [Refresh the active window]
• CTRL + V or SHIFT + INSERT [Paste the selected item]
• CTRL + X [Cut the selected item]
• CTRL + Y [Redo an action]
• CTRL + Z [Undo an action]
• CTRL + + or CTRL + – [Zoom in or out of a large NUMBER of items, like apps pinned to the Start screen]
• CTRL + mouse scroll wheel [Change the size of desktop icons or zoom in or out of a large NUMBER of items, like apps pinned to the Start screen]
• CTRL + RIGHT ARROW [Move the cursor to the beginning of the next word]
• CTRL + LEFT ARROW [Move the cursor to the beginning of the previous word]
• CTRL + DOWN ARROW [Move the cursor to the beginning of the next paragraph]
• CTRL + UP ARROW [Move the cursor to the beginning of the previous paragraph]
• CTRL + ALT + TAB [Use the arrow keys to switch between all open apps]
• CTRL + ARROW + SPACEBAR [Select multiple individual items in a window or on the desktop]
• CTRL + SHIFT + ARROW [Select a block of text]
• CTRL + ESC [Open the Start screen]
• CTRL + SHIFT + ESC [Open Task Manager]
• CTRL + SHIFT [Switch the keyboard layout when multiple keyboard layouts are available]
• CTRL + SPACEBAR [Turn the Chinese input method editor (IME) on or off]
• SHIFT + F10 [Display the shortcut menu for the selected item]
• SHIFT + ARROW [Select more than one item in a window or on the desktop, or select text within a document]
• SHIFT + DELETE [Delete the selected item without moving it to the Recycle Bin first]
• RIGHT ARROW [Open the next menu to the right, or open a submenu]
• LEFT ARROW [Open the next menu to the left, or close a submenu]
• ESC [Stop or leave the current task]
Windows key Shortcuts
Let’s check the keyboard shortcuts involving the Windows logo key. Most of them are introduced in Windows 8’s Metro UI, and can be used in Windows 8 and above.
• Win + F1 [Open Windows Help and support]
• Win [Display or hide the Start screen]
• Win + B [Set focus in the notification area]
Computer General Shortcuts 
• Win + C [Open Charms]
• Win + D [Display and hide the desktop]
• Win + E [Open File Explorer]
• Win + F [Open the Search charm and search for files]
• Win + H [Open the Share charm]
• Win + I [Open the Settings charm]
• Win + K [Open the Devices charm]
• Win + L [Lock your PC or switch people]
• Win + M [Minimize all windows]
• Win + O [Lock device orientation]
• Win + P [Choose a presentation display mode]
• Win + Q [Open the Search charm to search everywhere or within the open app (if the app supports app search)]
• Win + R [Open the Run dialog box]
• Win + S [Open the Search charm to search Windows and the web]
• Win + T [Cycle through apps on the taskbar]
• Win + U [Open Ease of Access Center]
• Win + V [Cycle through notifications]
• Win + SHIFT + V [Cycle through notifications in reverse order]
• Win + W [Open the Search charm and search for settings]
• Win + X [Open the Quick Link menu]
• Win + Z [Show the commands available in the app]
• Win + , [Temporarily peek at the desktop]
• Win + PAUSE [Display the System Properties dialog box]
• Win + CTRL + F [Search for PCs (if you’re on a network)]
• Win + SHIFT + M [Restore minimized windows on the desktop]
• Win + (NUMBER 1-9) [Open the desktop and start the app pinned to the taskbar in the position indicated by the number. If the app is already running, it switches to that app.]
• Win + SHIFT + (NUMBER 1-9) [Open the desktop and start a new instance of the app pinned to the taskbar in the position indicated by the number]
• Win + CTRL + (NUMBER 1-9) [Open the desktop and switch to the last active window of the app pinned to the taskbar in the position indicated by the number]
• Win + ALT + (NUMBER 1-9) [Open the desktop and open the Jump List for the app pinned to the taskbar in the position indicated by the number]
• Win + CTRL + SHIFT + (NUMBER 1-9) [Open the desktop and open a new instance of the app located at the given position on the taskbar as an administrator]
• Win + TAB [Cycle through recently used apps (except desktop apps)]
• Win + CTRL + TAB [Cycle through recently used apps (except desktop apps)]
• Win + SHIFT + TAB [Cycle through recently used apps (except desktop apps) in reverse order]
• Win + CTRL + B [Switch to the app that displayed a message in the notification area]
• Win + UP ARROW [Maximize the window]
• Win + DOWN ARROW [Remove current app from screen or minimize the desktop window]
• Win + LEFT ARROW [Maximize the app or desktop window to the LEFT side of the screen]
• Win + RIGHT ARROW [Maximize the app or desktop window to the RIGHT side of the screen]
• Win + HOME [Minimize all but the active desktop window (restores all windows on second stroke)]
• Win + SHIFT + UP ARROW [Stretch the desktop window to the top and bottom of the screen]
• Win + SHIFT + DOWN ARROW [Restore/minimize active desktop windows vertically, maintaining width]
• Win + SHIFT + LEFT ARROW or RIGHT ARROW [Move an app or window in the desktop from one monitor to another]
• Win + SPACEBAR [Switch input language and keyboard layout]
• Win + CTRL + SPACEBAR [Change to a previously selected input]
• Win + ENTER [Open Narrator]
• Win + SHIFT + . [Cycle through open apps]
• Win + . [Cycle through open apps]
• Win + / [Initiate IME reconversion]
• Win + ALT + ENTER [Open WindowsMedia Center]
• Win + +/- [Zoom in or out using Magnifier]
• Win + ESC [Exit Magnifier]

Dialog box Shortcuts

These are the keyboard shortcuts that can be used in dialog boxes.

• F1 [Display Help]
• F4 [Display the items in the active list]
• CTRL + TAB [Move forward through tabs]
• CTRL + SHIFT + TAB [Move back through tabs]
• CTRL + (NUMBER 1-9) [Move to nth tab]
• TAB [Move forward through options]
• SHIFT + TAB [Move back through options]
• ALT + Underlined Letter in menus and dialog box options [Perform the command (or select the option) that goes with that letter]
• SPACEBAR [Select or clear the check box if the active option is a check box]
• BACKSPACE [Open a folder one level up if a folder is selected in the Save As or Open dialog box]
• ARROW keys [Select a button if the active option is a group of option buttons]
File explorer Shortcuts
These are the shortcuts that can be used to work with File Explorer’s windows or folders.
Dialog box Shortcuts

• ALT + D [Select the address bar]
• CTRL + E [Select the search box]
• CTRL + F [Select the search box]
• CTRL + N [Open a new window]
• CTRL + W [Close the current window]
• CTRL + mouse scroll wheel [Change the size and appearance of file and folder icons]
• CTRL + SHIFT + E [Display all folders above the selected folder]
• CTRL + SHIFT + N [Create a new folder]
• NUM LOCK + * [Display all subfolders under the selected folder]
• NUM LOCK + + [Display the contents of the selected folder]
• NUM LOCK + – [Collapse the selected folder]
• ALT + P [Display the preview pane]
• ALT + ENTER [Open the Properties dialog box for the selected item]
• ALT + RIGHT ARROW [View the next folder]
• ALT + UP ARROW [View the folder that the folder was in]
• ALT + LEFT ARROW [View the previous folder]
• BACKSPACE [View the previous folder]
• RIGHT ARROW [Display the current selection (if it’s collapsed), or select the first subfolder]
• LEFT ARROW [Collapse the current selection (if it’s expanded), or select the folder that the folder was in]
• END [Display the bottom of the active window]
• HOME [Display the top of the active window]
• F11 [Maximize or minimize the active window]

Taskbar Shortcuts

Here are the keyboard shortcuts to work with items on the Desktop’s taskbar.

• SHIFT + Click a Taskbar Button [Open an app or quickly open another instance of an app]
• CTRL + SHIFT + Click a Taskbar Button [Open an app as an administrator]
• SHIFT + Right-click a Taskbar Button [Show the window menu for the app]
• SHIFT + Right-click a Grouped Taskbar Button [Show the window menu for the groUP]
• CTRL + Click a Grouped Taskbar Button [Cycle through the windows of the groUP]
Ease of access Shortcuts
These are the keyboard shortcuts to help you use your computer easily.

Taskbar Shortcuts

• Hold RIGHT SHIFT for eight seconds [Turn Filter Keys on and off]
• LEFT ALT + LEFT SHIFT + PRINT SCREEN [Turn High Contrast on or off]
• LEFT ALT + LEFT SHIFT + NUM LOCK [Turn Mouse Keys on or off]
• Press SHIFT five times [Turn Sticky Keys on or off]
• Press NUM LOCK for five seconds [Turn Toggle Keys on or off]
• Win + U [Open the Ease of Access Center]
Magnifier Shortcuts
Here are the keyboard shortcuts to help you use Magnifier.


• Win + + [Zoom in]
• Win + – [Zoom out]
• CTRL + ALT + SPACEBAR [Preview the desktop in full-screen mode]
• CTRL + ALT + D [Switch to docked mode]
• CTRL + ALT + F [Switch to full-screen mode]
• CTRL + ALT + I [Invert colors]
• CTRL + ALT + L [Switch to lens mode]
• CTRL + ALT + R [Resize the lens]
• CTRL + ALT + ARROW keys [Pan in the direction of the ARROW keys]
• Win + ESC [Exit Magnifier]

Narrator Shortcuts

These are the keyboard shortcuts to help you use Narrator.

• SPACEBAR or ENTER [Activate current item]
• TAB + ARROW Keys [Move around on the screen]
• CTRL [Stop reading]
• CAPS LOCK + D [Read item]
• CAPS LOCK + M [Start reading]
• CAPS LOCK + H [Read document]
• CAPS LOCK + V [Repeat phrase]
• CAPS LOCK + W [Read window]
• CAPS LOCK + PAGE UP or PAGE DOWN [Increase or decrease the volume of the voice]
• CAPS LOCK + +/- [Increase or decrease the speed of the voice]
• CAPS LOCK + SPACEBAR [Do default action]
• CAPS LOCK + LEFT or RIGHT ARROW [Move to previous/next item]
• CAPS LOCK + F2 [Show commands for current item]
• Caps + ESC [Exit Narrator]

Remote desktop connection Shortcuts

These are the keyboard shortcuts to ease the use of remote desktop connection.
• ALT + PAGE UP [Move between apps, left to right]
• ALT + PAGE DOWN [Move between apps, right to left]
• ALT + INSERT [Cycle through apps in the order that they were started]
• ALT + HOME [Display the Start screen]
• CTRL + ALT + BREAK [Switch between a window and full screen]
• CTRL + ALT + END [Display the Windows Security dialog box]
• CTRL + ALT + HOME [In full-screen mode, activate the connection bar]
• ALT + DELETE [Display the system menu]
• CTRL + ALT + –
[Place a copy of the active window, within the client, on the Terminal server clipboard (similar to ALT + PRINT SCREEN on a local PC)]
• CTRL + ALT + +
[Place a copy of the entire client window area on the Terminal server clipboard (similar to Print Screen on a local PC)]
• CTRL + ALT + RIGHT ARROW 
[TAB out of the Remote Desktop controls to a control in the host app (for example, a button or a text box). Useful when the Remote Desktop controls are embedded in another (host) app.]
• CTRL + ALT + LEFT ARROW 
[TABout of the Remote Desktop controls to a control in the host app (for example, a button or a text box). Useful when the Remote Desktop controls are embedded in another (host) app.]
Help viewer Shortcuts
These are the keyboard shortcuts that can be used with the help viewer.

• F3 [Move the cursor to the search box]
• F10 [Display the Options menu]
• HOME [Move to the beginning of a topic]
• END [Move to the end of a topic]
• ALT + LEFT ARROW [Move back to the previously viewed topic]
• ALT + RIGHT ARROW [Move to the next (previously viewed) topic]
• ALT + HOME [Display the Help and support home page]
• ALT + A [Display the customer support page]
• ALT + C [Display the TABle of Contents]
• ALT + N [Display the Connection Settings menu]
• CTRL + F [Search the current topic]
• CTRL + P [Print a topic]

App rearranging Shortcuts (Metro)

Here are the keyboard shortcuts that can be used to rearrange apps on Metro screen. You should keep the Windows key pressed down continuously once you enter in the rearrange mode, then use the various commands. When you’re done rearranging apps, then release the Windows key.
• Win + . [Enter Rearrange mode and select apps or dividers across monitors]
• Win + LEFT ARROW [Move app divider left]
• Win + RIGHT ARROW [Move app divider right]
• Win + UP ARROW [Maximize app]
• Win + DOWN ARROW [Close app]
• Win + ESC [Exit Rearrange mode]

SPRING - TRANSACTION MANAGEMENT

SPRING - TRANSACTION MANAGEMENT

A database transaction is a sequence of actions that are treated as a single unit of work. These

actions should either complete entirely or take no effect at all. Transaction management is an

important part of and RDBMS oriented enterprise applications to ensure data integrity and

consistency. The concept of transactions can be described with following four key properties

described as ACID:
SPRING - TRANSACTION MANAGEMENT

Atomicity: A transaction should be treated as a single unit of operation which means either

the entire sequence of operations is successful or unsuccessful.

Consistency: This represents the consistency of the referential integrity of the database,

unique primary keys in tables etc.
SPRING - TRANSACTION MANAGEMENT

Isolation: There may be many transactions processing with the same data set at the same

time, each transaction should be isolated from others to prevent data corruption.

Durability: Once a transaction has completed, the results of this transaction have to be

made permanent and cannot be erased from the database due to system failure.

A real RDBMS database system will guarantee all the four properties for each transaction. The

simplistic view of a transaction issued to the database using SQL is as follows:

Begin the transaction using begin transaction command.
SPRING - TRANSACTION MANAGEMENT

Perform various deleted, update or insert operations using SQL queries.

If all the operation are successful then perform commit otherwise rollback all the operations.

Spring framework provides an abstract layer on top of different underlying transaction

management APIs. The Spring's transaction support aims to provide an alternative to EJB

transactions by adding transaction capabilities to POJOs. Spring supports both programmatic and

declarative transaction management. EJBs requires an application server, but Spring transaction

management can be implemented without a need of application server.

Software Testing Questions for interviews

Software Testing Questions for interviews

Software Testing Basics

1. Can you explain the PDCA cycle and where testing fits in?

Software testing is an important part of the software development process. In normal software development there are four important steps, also referred to, in short, as the PDCA (Plan, Do, Check, Act) cycle.

Let's review the four steps in detail.

Plan: Define the goal and the plan for achieving that goal.

Do/Execute: Depending on the plan strategy decided during the plan stage we do exec

So developers and other stakeholders of the project do the "planning and building," while testers do the check part of the cycle. Therefore, software testing is done in check part of the PDCA cyle.

2. What is the difference between white box, black box, and gray box testing?

Black box testing is a testing strategy based solely on requirements and specifications. Black box testing requires no knowledge of internal paths, structures, or implementation of the software being tested.

White box testing is a testing strategy based on internal paths, code structures, and implementation of the software being tested. White box testing generally requires detailed programming skills.

There is one more type of testing called gray box testing. In this we look into the "box" being tested just long enough to understand how it has been implemented. Then we close up the box and use our knowledge to choose more effective black box tests.

The above figure shows how both types of testers view an accounting application during testing. Black box testers view the basic accounting application. While during white box testing the tester knows the internal structure of the application. In most scenarios white box testing is done by developers as they know the internals of the application. In black box testing we check the overall functionality of the application while in white box testing we do code reviews, view the architecture, remove bad code practices, and do component level testing.

3. Can you explain usability testing?

Usability testing is a testing methodology where the end customer is asked to use the software to see if the product is easy to use, to see the customer's perception and task time. The best way to finalize the customer point of view for usability is by using prototype or mock-up software during the initial stages. By giving the customer the prototype before the development start-up we confirm that we are not missing anything from the user point of view.

4. What are the categories of defects?

There are three main categories of defects:

Wrong: The requirements have been implemented incorrectly. This defect is a variance from the given specification.

Missing: There was a requirement given by the customer and it was not done. This is a variance from the specifications, an indication that a specification was not implemented, or a requirement of the customer was not noted properly.

Extra: A requirement incorporated into the product that was not given by the end customer. This is always a variance from the specification, but may be an attribute desired by the user of the product. However, it is considered a defect because it's a variance from the existing requirements.

5. How do you define a testing policy?

The following are the important steps used to define a testing policy in general. But it can change according to your organization. Let's discuss in detail the steps of implementing a testing policy in an organization.

Software Testing Questions for interviews

Definition: The first step any organization needs to do is define one unique definition for testing within the organization so that everyone is of the same mindset.

How to achieve: How are we going to achieve our objective? Is there going to be a testing committee, will there be compulsory test plans which need to be executed, etc?.

Evaluate: After testing is implemented in a project how do we evaluate it? Are we going to derive metrics of defects per phase, per programmer, etc. Finally, it's important to let everyone know how testing has added value to the project?.

Standards: Finally, what are the standards we want to achieve by testing? For instance, we can say that more than 20 defects per KLOC will be considered below standard and code review should be done for it.

6. On what basis is the acceptance plan prepared?

In any project the acceptance document is normally prepared using the following inputs. This can vary from company to company and from project to project.

Requirement document: This document specifies what exactly is needed in the project from the customers perspective.

Input from customer: This can be discussions, informal talks, emails, etc.

Project plan: The project plan prepared by the project manager also serves as good input to finalize your acceptance test.

The following diagram shows the most common inputs used to prepare acceptance test plans.

7. What is configuration management?

Configuration management is the detailed recording and updating of information for hardware and software components. When we say components we not only mean source code. It can be tracking of changes for software documents such as requirement, design, test cases, etc.

When changes are done in adhoc and in an uncontrolled manner chaotic situations can arise and more defects injected. So whenever changes are done it should be done in a controlled fashion and with proper versioning. At any moment of time we should be able to revert back to the old version. The main intention of configuration management is to track our changes if we have issues with the current system. Configuration management is done using baselines.

8. How does a coverage tool work?

While doing testing on the actual product, the code coverage testing tool is run simultaneously. While the testing is going on, the code coverage tool monitors the executed statements of the source code. When the final testing is completed we get a complete report of the pending statements and also get the coverage percentage.

9. Which is the best testing model?

In real projects, tailored models are proven to be the best, because they share features from The Waterfall, Iterative, Evolutionary models, etc., and can fit into real life time projects. Tailored models are most productive and beneficial for many organizations. If it's a pure testing project, then the V model is the best.

10. What is the difference between a defect and a failure?

When a defect reaches the end customer it is called a failure and if the defect is detected internally and resolved it's called a defect.

11. Should testing be done only after the build and execution phases are complete?

In traditional testing methodology testing is always done after the build and execution phases.

But that's a wrong way of thinking because the earlier we catch a defect, the more cost effective it is. For instance, fixing a defect in maintenance is ten times more costly than fixing it during execution.

In the requirement phase we can verify if the requirements are met according to the customer needs. During design we can check whether the design document covers all the requirements. In this stage we can also generate rough functional data. We can also review the design document from the architecture and the correctness perspectives. In the build and execution phase we can execute unit test cases and generate structural and functional data. And finally comes the testing phase done in the traditional way. i.e., run the system test cases and see if the system works according to the requirements. During installation we need to see if the system is compatible with the software. Finally, during the maintenance phase when any fixes are made we can retest the fixes and follow the regression testing.

Therefore, Testing should occur in conjunction with each phase of the software development.

12. Are there more defects in the design phase or in the coding phase?

The design phase is more error prone than the execution phase. One of the most frequent defects which occur during design is that the product does not cover the complete requirements of the customer. Second is wrong or bad architecture and technical decisions make the next phase, execution, more prone to defects. Because the design phase drives the execution phase it's the most critical phase to test. The testing of the design phase can be done by good review. On average, 60% of defects occur during design and 40% during the execution phase.

13. What group of teams can do software testing?

When it comes to testing everyone in the world can be involved right from the developer to the project manager to the customer. But below are different types of team groups which can be present in a project.

Isolated test team

Outsource - we can hire external testing resources and do testing for our project.

Inside test team

Developers as testers

QA/QC team.

14. What impact ratings have you used in your projects?

Normally, the impact ratings for defects are classified into three types:

Minor: Very low impact but does not affect operations on a large scale.

Major: Affects operations on a very large scale.

Critical: Brings the system to a halt and stops the show.

Software Testing Questions for interviews

15. Does an increase in testing always improve the project?

No an increase in testing does not always mean improvement of the product, company, or project. In real test scenarios only 20% of test plans are critical from a business angle. Running those critical test plans will assure that the testing is properly done. The following graph explains the impact of under testing and over testing. If you under test a system the number of defects will increase, but if you over test a system your cost of testing will increase. Even if your defects come down your cost of testing has gone up.

16. What's the relationship between environment reality and test phases?

Environment reality becomes more important as test phases start moving ahead. For instance, during unit testing you need the environment to be partly real, but at the acceptance phase you should have a 100% real environment, or we can say it should be the actual real environment. The following graph shows how with every phase the environment reality should also increase and finally during acceptance it should be 100% real.

17. What are different types of verifications?

Verification is static type of s/w testing. It means code is not executed. The product is evaluated by going through the code. Types of verification are:

Walkthrough: Walkthroughs are informal, initiated by the author of the s/w product to a colleague for assistance in locating defects or suggestions for improvements. They are usually unplanned. Author explains the product; colleague comes out with observations and author notes down relevant points and takes corrective actions.

Inspection: Inspection is a thorough word-by-word checking of a software product with the intention of Locating defects, Confirming traceability of relevant requirements etc.

18. How do test documents in a project span across the software development lifecycle?

The following figure shows pictorially how test documents span across the software development lifecycle. The following discusses the specific testing documents in the lifecycle:

Central/Project test plan: This is the main test plan which outlines the complete test strategy of the software project. This document should be prepared before the start of the project and is used until the end of the software development lifecycle.

Acceptance test plan: This test plan is normally prepared with the end customer. This document commences during the requirement phase and is completed at final delivery.

System test plan: This test plan starts during the design phase and proceeds until the end of the project.

Integration and unit test plan: Both of these test plans start during the execution phase and continue until the final delivery.

19. Which test cases are written first: white boxes or black boxes?

Normally black box test cases are written first and white box test cases later. In order to write black box test cases we need the requirement document and, design or project plan. All these documents are easily available at the initial start of the project. White box test cases cannot be started in the initial phase of the project because they need more architecture clarity which is not available at the start of the project. So normally white box test cases are written after black box test cases are written.

Black box test cases do not require system understanding but white box testing needs more structural understanding. And structural understanding is clearer i00n the later part of project, i.e., while executing or designing. For black box testing you need to only analyze from the functional perspective which is easily available from a simple requirement document.

20. Explain Unit Testing, Integration Tests, System Testing and Acceptance Testing?

Unit testing - Testing performed on a single, stand-alone module or unit of code.

Integration Tests - Testing performed on groups of modules to ensure that data and control are passed properly between modules.

System testing - Testing a predetermined combination of tests that, when executed successfully meets requirements.

Acceptance testing - Testing to ensure that the system meets the needs of the organization and the end user or customer (i.e., validates that the right system was built).

21. What is a test log?

The IEEE Std. 829-1998 defines a test log as a chronological record of relevant details about the execution of test cases. It's a detailed view of activity and events given in chronological manner.

The following figure shows a test log and is followed by a sample test log.

22. Can you explain requirement traceability and its importance?

In most organizations testing only starts after the execution/coding phase of the project. But if the organization wants to really benefit from testing, then testers should get involved right from the requirement phase.

If the tester gets involved right from the requirement phase then requirement traceability is one of the important reports that can detail what kind of test coverage the test cases have.

23. What does entry and exit criteria mean in a project?

Entry and exit criteria are a must for the success of any project. If you do not know where to start and where to finish then your goals are not clear. By defining exit and entry criteria you define your boundaries.

For instance, you can define entry criteria that the customer should provide the requirement document or acceptance plan. If this entry criteria is not met then you will not start the project. On the other end, you can also define exit criteria for your project. For instance, one of the common exit criteria in projects is that the customer has successfully executed the acceptance test plan.

24. What is the difference between verification and validation?

Verification is a review without actually executing the process while validation is checking the product with actual execution. For instance, code review and syntax check is verification while actually running the product and checking the results is validation.

25. What is the difference between latent and masked defects?

A latent defect is an existing defect that has not yet caused a failure because the sets of conditions were never met.

A masked defect is an existing defect that hasn't yet caused a failure just because another defect has prevented that part of the code from being executed.

26. Can you explain calibration?

It includes tracing the accuracy of the devices used in the production, development and testing. Devices used must be maintained and calibrated to ensure that it is working in good order.

27. What's the difference between alpha and beta testing?

Alpha and beta testing has different meanings to different people. Alpha testing is the acceptance testing done at the development site. Some organizations have a different visualization of alpha testing. They consider alpha testing as testing which is conducted on early, unstable versions of software. On the contrary beta testing is acceptance testing conducted at the customer end.

In short, the difference between beta testing and alpha testing is the location where the tests are done.

28. How does testing affect risk?

A risk is a condition that can result in a loss. Risk can only be controlled in different scenarios but not eliminated completely. A defect normally converts to a risk.

29. What is coverage and what are the different types of coverage techniques?

Coverage is a measurement used in software testing to describe the degree to which the source code is tested. There are three basic types of coverage techniques as shown in the following figure:

Statement coverage: This coverage ensures that each line of source code has been executed and tested.

Decision coverage: This coverage ensures that every decision (true/false) in the source code has been executed and tested.

Path coverage: In this coverage we ensure that every possible route through a given part of code is executed and tested.

30. A defect which could have been removed during the initial stage is removed in a later stage. How does this affect cost?

If a defect is known at the initial stage then it should be removed during that stage/phase itself rather than at some later stage. It's a recorded fact that if a defect is delayed for later phases it proves more costly. The following figure shows how a defect is costly as the phases move forward. A defect if identified and removed during the requirement and design phase is the most cost effective, while a defect removed during maintenance is 20 times costlier than during the requirement and design phases.

For instance, if a defect is identified during requirement and design we only need to change the documentation, but if identified during the maintenance phase we not only need to fix the defect, but also change our test plans, do regression testing, and change all documentation. This is why a defect should be identified/removed in earlier phases and the testing department should be involved right from the requirement phase and not after the execution phase.

Software Testing Questions for interviews

31. What kind of input do we need from the end user to begin proper testing?

The product has to be used by the user. He is the most important person as he has more interest than anyone else in the project.

From the user we need the following data:

The first thing we need is the acceptance test plan from the end user. The acceptance test defines the entire test which the product has to pass so that it can go into production.

We also need the requirement document from the customer. In normal scenarios the customer never writes a formal document until he is really sure of his requirements. But at some point the customer should sign saying yes this is what he wants.

The customer should also define the risky sections of the project. For instance, in a normal accounting project if a voucher entry screen does not work that will stop the accounting functionality completely. But if reports are not derived the accounting department can use it for some time. The customer is the right person to say which section will affect him the most. With this feedback the testers can prepare a proper test plan for those areas and test it thoroughly.

The customer should also provide proper data for testing. Feeding proper data during testing is very important. In many scenarios testers key in wrong data and expect results which are of no interest to the customer.

32. Can you explain the workbench concept?

In order to understand testing methodology we need to understand the workbench concept. A Workbench is a way of documenting how a specific activity has to be performed. A workbench is referred to as phases, steps, and tasks as shown in the following figure.

There are five tasks for every workbench:

Input: Every task needs some defined input and entrance criteria. So for every workbench we need defined inputs. Input forms the first steps of the workbench.

Execute: This is the main task of the workbench which will transform the input into the expected output.

Check: Check steps assure that the output after execution meets the desired result.

Production output: If the check is right the production output forms the exit criteria of the workbench.

Rework: During the check step if the output is not as desired then we need to again start from the execute step.

33. Can you explain the concept of defect cascading?

Defect cascading is a defect which is caused by another defect. One defect triggers the other defect. For instance, in the accounting application shown here there is a defect which leads to negative taxation. So the negative taxation defect affects the ledger which in turn affects four other modules.

34. Can you explain cohabiting software?

When we install the application at the end client it is very possible that on the same PC other applications also exist. It is also very possible that those applications share common DLLs, resources etc., with your application. There is a huge chance in such situations that your changes can affect the cohabiting software. So the best practice is after you install your application or after any changes, tell other application owners to run a test cycle on their application.

35. What is the difference between pilot and beta testing?

The difference between pilot and beta testing is that pilot testing is nothing but actually using the product (limited to some users) and in beta testing we do not input real data, but it's installed at the end customer to validate if the product can be used in production.

36. What are the different strategies for rollout to end users?

There are four major ways of rolling out any project:

Pilot: The actual production system is installed at a single or limited number of users. Pilot basically means that the product is actually rolled out to limited users for real work.

Gradual Implementation: In this implementation we ship the entire product to the limited users or all users at the customer end. Here, the developers get instant feedback from the recipients which allow them to make changes before the product is available. But the downside is that developers and testers maintain more than one version at one time.

Phased Implementation: In this implementation the product is rolled out to all users in incrementally. That means each successive rollout has some added functionality. So as new functionality comes in, new installations occur and the customer tests them progressively. The benefit of this kind of rollout is that customers can start using the functionality and provide valuable feedback progressively. The only issue here is that with each rollout and added functionality the integration becomes more complicated.

Parallel Implementation: In these types of rollouts the existing application is run side by side with the new application. If there are any issues with the new application we again move back to the old application. One of the biggest problems with parallel implementation is we need extra hardware, software, and resources.

37. What's the difference between System testing and Acceptance testing?

Acceptance testing checks the system against the "Requirements." It is similar to System testing in that the whole system is checked but the important difference is the change in focus:

System testing checks that the system that was specified has been delivered. Acceptance testing checks that the system will deliver what was requested. The customer should always do Acceptance testing and not the developer.

The customer knows what is required from the system to achieve value in the business and is the only person qualified to make that judgement. This testing is more about ensuring that the software is delivered as defined by the customer. It's like getting a green light from the customer that the software meets expectations and is ready to be used.

Software Testing Questions for interviews

38. Can you explain regression testing and confirmation testing?

Regression testing is used for regression defects. Regression defects are defects occur when the functionality which was once working normally has stopped working. This is probably because of changes made in the program or the environment. To uncover such kind of defect regression testing is conducted.

The following figure shows the difference between regression and confirmation testing.

If we fix a defect in an existing application we use confirmation testing to test if the defect is removed. It's very possible because of this defect or changes to the application that other sections of the application are affected. So to ensure that no other section is affected we can use regression testing to confirm this.

IBPS ARITHIMATIC & REASONING

IBPS CWE ONLINE PAPER 

IBPS CWE ONLINE PAPER ARITHIMATIC

1. What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?

1089/? = ?/1296

A.    1188              B.    1192

C.    1196                D.    1204

2.  7.8% of 12.5 + 2.5% of 161 = ?

A.    12   B.    9.6

C.    8      D.    5

3.   17580 x 1.8 - 13720 x 2.1 = ? x 2.4

A.    1120              B.    1140

C.    1160               D.    1180

4.  1051.64 - 159.42 - 96.84 + 162.37 - 940.26 + 504 = ?

A.    517.49           B.    521.49

C.    527.49           D.    531.49

5.    (7)3 ÷ (49)-2 x 343 = (7)?

A.    4     B.    7

C.    10   D.    11

6.  √9216 + √15376 = ?

A.    216 B.    220

C.    224 D.    228

7.   (28)26 x (21952)-8 ÷ 1/(28)-1 = ?

A.    (28)-2            B.    (28)-1

C.    28   D.    (28)2

8.  What will be the value of 4/5 of 3/8 of 55% of 31920 ?

A.    5024.2           B.    5266.8

C.    5478.4           D.    5636.2

9.  Which is the smallest fractions among the following?

A.    11/13            B.    13/15

C.    27/31             D.    15/19

10.

The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 12, and the difference between the number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is 18. Find the number.

A.    93   B.    75

C.    84   D.    48

11. What will be the next number in the following number series ?

2, 12,30,56,90, 132, ?

A.    172 B.    175

C.    178 D.    182

12

An amount of Rs 50 lakh becomes Rs 683815.5 after three years at compound interest. What is the rate of interest ?

A.    9%  B.    10%

C.    11%                D.    12%

13          

If the difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned on a sum of money at the rate of 5% p.a. for two years is `4, what is the amount ?

A.    Rs 400           B.    Rs 800

C.    Rs 1200         D.    Rs 1600

14.         

If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator by 400% the resultant fraction is 3/8. What is the original fraction ?

A.    3/8 B.    5/8

C.    3/5 D.    4/5

15

The cost of 24 pens and 40 copies is ?520. What will be the cost of 42 pens and 70 copies ?

A.    Rs 840           B.    Rs 910

C.    Rs 970           D.    Rs 1020

16

In an examination, it is required to score 32% of the aggregate marks for a student to pass the examination. A student scored 250 marks and was declared failed by 22 marks. What is the aggregate marks ?

A.    720 B.    750

C.    800 D.    850

17

The average age of eight boys is 16 years. If the age of one more boy is added to it, the average age increases by 1 year. What is the age of that boy ?

A.    20 years       B.    24 years

C.    25 years       D.    18 years

18

Which is the smallest fraction among the following ?

A.    7/9 B.    4/5

C.    6/7 D.    9/13

               

 In each following bar-graph, the expenditure and the percentage profit a company are given during the period 2000 to 2005. Answer the following questions based on this graph.

19 What is the income of the company in the year 2004 ?

A.    80 lakh          B.    84 lakh

C.    85 lakh          D.    77.5 lakh

20          

What is the ner profit in the year 2000 and 2005 together ?

A.    20 lakh          B.    24 lakh

C.    32 lakh          D.    36 lakh

21          

What is the ratio of the profit in the year 2001 to that in 2002 ?

A.    3:4  B.    4:5

C.    5:6  D.    6:7

22          

The profit of the company in the year 2004 is what percentage more than its profit in the year 2003 ?

A.    25%               B.    75%

C.    50%                D.    80%

23          

The profit of the company in the year 2005 is what percentage of its profit in the year 2002 ?

A.    75%               B.    80%

C.    90%                D.    120%

24

The cost of 8 bangles and 5 rings is 3640. What is the cost of 16 bangles and 10 rings?

A.    Rs 8180         B.    Rs 7280

C.    Rs 7384         D.    Rs 7380

25.         

3360 ÷ 15 ÷ 14 = ?

A.    22   B.    24

C.    16   D.    18

26 .        

3.5 x 4 - 2.6 x 5/7.8 x 5 - 5.5 x 4 = 3/?

A.    34   B.    28

C.    17   D.    51

27 .        

√576 + √? = √1936

A.    20   B.    400

C.    441                 D.    22

28 .        

2/7 of 5/8 of 7/9 of 6048 = ?

A.    504 B.    820

C.    168 D.    None of these

29 .        

1170 ÷ 26 ÷ (785 - 423 + ?) = 440

A.    37   B.    33

C.    38   D.    43

30

3 3/8 x 4 2/5 + ? = 16

A.    2 3/5              B.    2 3/20

C.    1 3/5              D.    1 3/20

IBPS CWE ONLINE PAPER  REASONING

1

'CE' is related to HJ in the same way as PS is related to_______""?

A.    UW                B.    UX

C.    TW D.    TX

2 .          

How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RETU using each letter only once in each word ?

A.    None            B.    One

C.    Two               D.    Three

3 .          

Pointing to a boy, Seema said, "He is the son of my grand father's only child." How is boy related to Seema ?

A.    Brother        B.    Cousin

C.    Sister             D.    Data inadequate

4 .          

A is older than B. C is younger than B. D is older than C but younger than B. Who among the four is the youngest ?

A.    B     B.    D

C.    A     D.    C

5 .          

In a certain code 'come home' is written as 'ta na' and 'nice little home' is written as 'ja na pa'. How is 'come' written in that code ?

A.    ta    B.    na

C.    ja    D.    na or ta

6 .          

In a certain code CHRONICLE is written as 'PSIDMFMDJ'. How is 'SEPTEMBER' written in that code ?

A.    UQFTFSFCN               B.    UQFTDSFCN

C.    UQFTESFCN                D.    SFCNDUQFT

7 .          

If '÷' mean ' - ' , ' - ' means '+', '+' means 'x' and 'x' means '÷' then the value of 17 + 5 - 75 ÷ 15 x 3 = ?

A.    145 B.    150

C.    155 D.    140

8 .          

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MARKETING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?

A.    None            B.    One

C.    Two               D.    Three

9   Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

A.    841 B.    961

C.    121 D.    221

10 .         How many such digits are there in 5321648 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number ?

A.    None            B.    One

C.    Two               D.    Three

In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II, and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

11 Statements: Some tents are buildings.

                      Some buildings are chairs.

                      Some chairs are windows.

Conclusions: I Some windows are buildings.

                       II. Some windows are tents.

                       III. Some chairs are tents.

A.    None follows             B.    Only I and II follow

C.    Only II and III folllow               D.    Only I and III follow

12 .         Statements: All books are tables.

                      All tables are chairs.

                      All chairs are papers.

Conclusions: I. Some tables are books.

                       II. Some papers are tables.

                       III. No table is a book.

A.    None follows             B.    Only I and III follow

C.    Only I and II follow  D.    All follow

13 .  Statements: All boxes are hammers.

                      Some hammers are wheels.

                      All wheels are mirrors.

Conclusions: I Some hammers are mirrors.

                       II Some wheels are boxes.

                       III. Some mirrors are boxes.

A.    All follow     B.    Only II follows

C.    Only I follows             D.    Only III follows

14 . Statements: All jackets are trousers.

                      All trousers are shirts.

                      Some shirts are hooks.

Conclusions: I. Some shirts are jackets.

                       II. Some trousers are jackets.

                       III. Some hooks are shirts.

A.    Only I and II follow  B.    Only I and III follow

C.    Only II and III follow                D.    All follow

15 .         Statements: Some hotels are airports.

                      All airports are cameras.

                      Some cameras are caps.

Conclusions: I. Some caps are airports.

                       II. Some cameras are hotels.

                       III. No cap is an airports.

A.    Only I or III and II follow        B.    Only II follows

C.    Only I or III follows  D.    All follow

16 .         Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

W M 6 2 I # R 3 D E 8 D 9 % A 5 B $ K P I J O H 7 @ F $ 4 T N

How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number ?

A.    One               B.    Two

C.    Three            D.    Four

17 . Which of the following is the sixth to the right of the twelfth from the left end ?

A.    $     B.    B

C.    K     D.    P

18 . What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ? M2# D89 5$P ?

A.    ©7@             B.    ©HF

C.    ©7F               D.    ©JH

19 .         Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

A.    6IM                B.    3ER

C.    D%8               D.    H©@

20 . How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter ?

A.    None            B.    Two

C.    First               D.    Three

In the following questions, the symbols #, S, %, ⋆, and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

'A#B' means 'A is not greater than B'

'A$B' means 'A is neither smaller nor equal to B'

' A%B' means 'A is neither smaller nor greater than B'

' A ⋆B' means 'A is neither greater than nor equal to B'

'A@B' means 'A is not smaller than B'

Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answers accordingly.

21  Statements: P # Q, Q % R,

Conclusions: I. R @ P    II. P # S

A.    if only conclusion I is true.    B.    if only conclusion II is true.

C.    if either conclusion I or II is true.       D.    if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

22  Statements: A$B, B@C,

Conclusions: I.A@D   II.D$B

A.    if only conclusion I is true.    B.    if only conclusion II is true.

C.    if either conclusion I or II is true.       D.    if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

23  Statements: W ⋆ X, X # Y,

Conclusions: I. W ⋆ Z    II.W@Z

A.    if only conclusion I is true.    B.    if only conclusion II is true.

C.    if either conclusion I or II is true.       D.    if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

24  Statements: N @ M, M $ P,

Conclusions: I. K ⋆ N     II.P@N

A.    if only conclusion I is true.    B.    if only conclusion II is true.

C.    if either conclusion I or II is true.       D.    if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

25  Statements: G@H, H$P,

Conclusions: I . T # G    II.P#G

A.    if only conclusion I is true.    B.    if only conclusion II is true.

C.    if either conclusion I or II is true.       D.    if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

                Direction (Q. 6 - 10) : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. A is not the neighbour of E. C is third to the right of B. H is second to left of E, who is next to the right of C. F is not, neighbour of E or B, and is to the immediate left of G.

26 Which of the following is the correct position of C ?

A.    To the immediate right of E B.    To the immediate right of H

C.    To the immediate left of A   D.    To the immediate left of H

27   Who is to the immediate right of B ?

A.    A     B.    G

C.    H     D.    Cannot be determined

28    Which of the following pairs of persons represents F's neighbours ?

A.    D and E         B.    G and B

C.    G and D        D.    B and D

29 .  Which of the following groups has the first person sitting between the other two persons ?

A.    GBA               B.    AHC

C.    CDE                D.    None of these

30   Who is to the immediate left of F ?

A.    G    B.    B

C.    E      D.    D

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