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Tuesday, October 26, 2010

AN INTRODUCTION TO SOFTWARE TESTING



AN INTRODUCTION TO SOFTWARE TESTING




SUCCESS FOR CAREER


AN INTRODUCTION TO SOFTWARE TESTING

1. WHAT IS SOFTWARE TESTING?

There are many published definitions of software testing, however, all of these definitions boil down to essentially the same thing: software testing is the process of executing software in a controlled manner, in order to answer the question "Does the software behave as specified?".

Software testing is often used in association with the terms verification and validation. Verification is the checking or testing of items, including software, for conformance and consistency with an associated specification. Software testing is just one kind of verification, which also uses techniques such as reviews, analysis, inspections and walkthroughs. Validation is the process of checking that what has been specified is what the user actually wanted.

• Validation: Are we doing the right job?
• Verification: Are we doing the job right?




The term bug is often used to refer to a problem or fault in a computer. There are software bugs and hardware bugs. The term originated in the United States, at the time when pioneering computers were built out of valves, when a series of previously inexplicable faults were eventually traced to moths flying about inside the computer.

Software testing should not be confused with debugging. Debugging is the process of analyzing and locating bugs when software does not behave as expected. Although the identification of some bugs will be obvious from playing with the software, a methodical approach to software testing is a much more thorough means of identifying bugs. Debugging is therefore an activity which supports testing, but cannot replace testing. However, no amount of testing can be guaranteed to discover all bugs.

Other activities which are often associated with software testing are static analysis and dynamic analysis. Static analysis investigates the source code of software, looking for problems and gathering metrics without actually executing the code. Dynamic analysis looks at the behaviour of software while it is executing, to provide information such as execution traces, timing profiles, and test coverage information.

2. SOFTWARE SPECIFICATIONS AND TESTING

The key component of the above definitions is the word specified. Validation and verification activities, such as software testing, cannot be meaningful unless there is a specification for the software. Software could be a single module or unit of code, or an entire system. Depending on the size of the development and the development methods, specification of software can range from a single document to a complex hierarchy of documents.
A hierarchy of software specifications will typically contain three or more levels of software
specification documents.

• The Requirements Specification, which specifies what the software is required to do and may also specify constraints on how this may be achieved.
• The Architectural Design Specification, which describes the architecture of a design which implements the requirements. Components within the software and the relationship between them will be described in this document.
• Detailed Design Specifications, which describe how each component in the software, down to individual units, is to be implemented.

Requirements Specification
|
Architectural Design Specification
|
Detailed Design Specification
With such a hierarchy of specifications, it is possible to test software at various stages of the development, for conformance with each specification. The levels of testing which correspond to the hierarchy of software specifications listed above are:

• Unit Testing, in which each unit (basic component) of the software is tested to verify that the detailed design for the unit has been correctly implemented.

• Software Integration Testing, in which progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a whole.

• System Testing, in which the software is integrated to the overall product and tested to show that all requirements are met.

A further level of testing is also concerned with requirements:

• Acceptance Testing, upon which acceptance of the completed software is based. This will often use a subset of the system tests, witnessed by the customers for the software or system.

Once each level of software specification has been written, the next step is to design the tests. An important point here is that the tests should be designed before the software is implemented, because if the software was implemented first it would be too tempting to test the software against what it is observed to do (which is not really testing at all), rather than against what it is specified to do.

Within each level of testing, once the tests have been applied, test results are evaluated. If a problem is encountered, then either the tests are revised and applied again, or the software is fixed and the tests applied again. This is repeated until no problems are encountered, at which point development can proceed to the next level of testing.

Testing does not end following the conclusion of acceptance testing. Software has to be maintained to fix problems which show up during use and to accommodate new requirements. Software tests have to be repeated, modified and extended. The effort to revise and repeat tests consequently forms a major part of the overall cost of developing and maintaining software. The term regression testing is used to refer to the repetition of earlier successful tests in order to make sure that changes to the software have not introduced side effects.

3. TEST DESIGN DOCUMENTATION

The design of tests is subject to the same basic engineering principles as the design of software. Good design consists of a number of stages which progressively elaborate the design of tests from an initial high level strategy to detailed test procedures. These stages are: test strategy, test planning, test case design, and test procedure design.

The design of tests has to be driven by the specification of the software. At the highest level this means that tests will be designed to verify that the software faithfully implements the requirements of the Requirements Specification. At lower levels tests will be designed to verify that items of software implement all design decisions made in the Architectural Design Specification and Detailed Design Specifications. As with any design process, each stage of the test design process should be subject to informal and formal review.

The ease with which tests can be designed is highly dependant on the design of the software. It is important to consider testability as a key (but usually undocumented) requirement for any software development.


3.1. TEST STRATEGY

The first stage is the formulation of a test strategy. A test strategy is a statement of the overall approach to testing, identifying what levels of testing are to be applied and the methods, techniques and tools to be used. A test strategy should ideally be organization wide, being applicable to all of an organisations software development.

Developing a test strategy which efficiently meets the needs of an organisation is critical to the success of software development within the organisation. The application of a test strategy to a software development project should be detailed in the projects software quality plan.

3.2. TEST PLANS

The next stage of test design, which is the first stage within a software development project, is the development of a test plan. A test plan states what the items to be tested are, at what level they will be tested, what sequence they are to be tested in, how the test strategy will be applied to the testing of each item, and describes the test environment.

A test plan may be project wide, or may in fact be a hierarchy of plans relating to the various levels of specification and testing:

• An Acceptance Test Plan, describing the plan for acceptance testing of the software. This would usually be published as a separate document, but might be published with the system test plan as a single document.

• A System Test Plan, describing the plan for system integration and testing. This would also usually be published as a separate document, but might be published with the acceptance test plan.

• A Software Integration Test Plan, describing the plan for integration of tested software components. This may form part of the Architectural Design Specification.

• Unit Test Plan(s), describing the plans for testing of individual units of software. These may form part of the Detailed Design Specifications.

The objective of each test plan is to provide a plan for verification, by testing the software, that the software produced fulfils the requirements or design statements of the appropriate software specification. In the case of acceptance testing and system testing, this means the Requirements Specification.

3.3. TEST CASE DESIGN

Once the test plan for a level of testing has been written, the next stage of test design is to specify a set of test cases or test paths for each item to be tested at that level. A number of test cases will be identified for each item to be tested at each level of testing. Each test case will specify how the implementation of a particular requirement or design decision is to be tested and the criteria for success of the test.

The test cases may be documented with the test plan, as a section of a software specification, or in a separate document called a test specification or test description.

• An Acceptance Test Specification, specifying the test cases for acceptance testing of
the software. This would usually be published as a separate document, but might be
published with the acceptance test plan.
• A System Test Specification, specifying the test cases for system integration and testing. This would also usually be published as a separate document, but might be published with the system test plan.

• Software Integration Test Specifications, specifying the test cases for each stage of
integration of tested software components. These may form sections of the Architectural
Design Specification.

• Unit Test Specifications, specifying the test cases for testing of individual units of
software. These may form sections of the Detailed Design Specifications.

System testing and acceptance testing involve an enormous number of individual test cases.
In order to keep track of which requirements are tested by which test cases, an index which
cross references between requirements and test cases often constructed. This is usually referred to as a Verification Cross Reference Index (VCRI) and is attached to the test specification. Cross reference indexes may also be used with unit testing and software integration testing.

It is important to design test cases for both positive testing and negative testing. Positive testing checks that the software does what it should. Negative testing checks that the software doesn't do what it shouldn't.

The process of designing test cases, including executing them as thought experiments, will often identify bugs before the software has even been built. It is not uncommon to find more bugs when designing tests than when executing tests.

3.4. TEST PROCEDURES

The final stage of test design is to implement a set of test cases as a test procedure, specifying the exact process to be followed to conduct each of the test cases. This is a fairly straight forward process, which can be likened to designing units of code from higher level functional descriptions.

For each item to be tested, at each level of testing, a test procedure will specify the process to be followed in conducting the appropriate test cases. A test procedure cannot leave out steps or make assumptions. The level of detail must be such that the test procedure is deterministic and repeatable.

Test procedures should always be separate items, because they contain a great deal of detail which is irrelevant to software specifications. If AdaTEST or Cantata are used, test procedures may be coded directly as AdaTEST or Cantata test scripts.

4. TEST RESULTS DOCUMENTATION

When tests are executed, the outputs of each test execution should be recorded in a test results file. These results are then assessed against criteria in the test specification to determine the overall outcome of a test. If AdaTEST or Cantata are used, this file will be created and the results assessed automatically according to criteria specified in the test script.

Each test execution should also be noted in a test log. The test log will contain records of when each test has been executed, the outcome of each test execution, and may also include key observations made during test execution. Often a test log is not maintained for lower levels of testing (unit test and software integration test).

Test reports may be produced at various points during the testing process. A test report will summarise the results of testing and document any analysis. An acceptance test report often forms a contractual document within which acceptance of software is agreed.



5. FURTHER RESULTS AND CONCLUSION

Software can be tested at various stages of the development and with various degrees of rigour. Like any development activity, testing consumes effort and effort costs money. Developers should plan for between 30% and 70% of a projects effort to be expended on verification and validation activities, including software testing.

From an economics point of view, the level of testing appropriate to a particular organisation and software application will depend on the potential consequences of undetected bugs. Such consequences can range from a minor inconvenience of having to find a work-round for a bug to multiple deaths. Often overlooked by software developers (but not by customers), is the long term damage to the credibility of an organization which delivers software to users with bugs in it, and the resulting negative impact on future business. Conversely, a reputation for reliable software will help an organization to obtain future business.

Efficiency and quality are best served by testing software as early in the life cycle as practical, with full regression testing whenever changes are made. The later a bug is found, the higher the cost of fixing it, so it is sound economics to identify and fix bugs as early as possible. Designing tests will help to identify bugs, even before the tests are executed, so designing tests as early as practical in a software development is a useful means of reducing the cost of identifying and correcting bugs.

In practice the design of each level of software testing will be developed through a number of layers, each adding more detail to the tests. Each level of tests should be designed before the implementation reaches a point which could influence the design of tests in such a way as to be detrimental to the objectivity of the tests. Remember: software should be tested against what it is specified to do, not against what it actually observed to do.

The effectiveness of testing effort can be maximised by selection of an appropriate testing strategy, good management of the testing process, and appropriate use of tools such as AdaTEST or Cantata to support the testing process. The net result will be an increase in quality and a decrease in costs, both of which can only be beneficial to a software developers business.

The following list provides some rules to follow as an aid to effective and beneficial software testing.

• Always test against a specification. If tests are not developed from a specification, then it is not testing. Hence, testing is totally reliant upon adequate specification of software.

• Document the testing process: specify tests and record test results.

• Test hierarchically against each level of specification. Finding more errors earlier will ultimately reduce costs.

• Plan verification and validation activities, particularly testing.

• Complement testing with techniques such as static analysis and dynamic analysis.

• Always test positively: that the software does what it should, but also negatively: that it doesn't do what it shouldn't.

• Have the right attitude to testing - it should be a challenge, not the chore it so often becomes.





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THE BASIC LANGUAGE



THE BASIC LANGUAGE



THE BASIC  C LANGUAGE
 object oriented programming.
 Encapsulation.
 Polymorphism.
 CPP Preprocessor Directives.
 Comments.
 CPP Data types
 New and Delete expressions
 Type convertions.

Object oriented programming: It is nothing but doing the programs with the help of objects. So first of all we have to know what is an object? How it is implemented in C++ programming? All these details are given below.
CLASS: A class is an expanded concept of a data structure: instead of holding only data, it can hold both data and functions.
OBJECT: An object is an instantiation of a class. In terms of variables, a class would be the type, and an object would be the variable.
By using these objects we can access the class members and member functions.

Classes are generally declared using the keyword class, with the following format:

class class_name { EG: Class student
access_specifier_1: {
member 1; charname;
access_specifier_2: int marks:
member2; float average;
… }s;
}object_names;
In the above eg: “S” is the object so we can access entire data of the student class by using this object. We discuss about the access specifiers in next concepts in detail.
Encapsulation: Wrapping up of a data in to single logical unit (i.e class) is called encapsulation. So writing class is known as encapsulation.
Polymorphism: Simply it one thing different actions let me explain consider one person (assume that person is one thing)he will exibit different actions depending on situations like his son called him daddy, and his father called him son, and his wife called him husband. I will explain how this concept is implemented in our C++ concepts in the upcoming chapters.

Inheritance: A key feature of C++ classes is inheritance. Inheritance allows creating classes which are derived from other classes, so that they automatically include some of its “parent’s” members, plus its own. We will the implementation of this concept in detail in the upcoming chapters.

Comments: comments are parts of the source code disregarded by the compiler. They simply do nothing. Their purpose is only to allow the programmer to insert notes or descriptions embedded within the source code.




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C++ supports two ways to insert comments:
//line comment
/*block comment*/
The first of them, known as line comment, discards everything from where the pair of slash signs (//) is found up to the end of that same line. The second one, known as block comment, discards everything between the /* characters and the first appearance of the */ characters, with the possibility of including more than one line.

We are going to add comments to our second program:

If you include comments within the source code of your programs with out using the comment characters combinations //,/* or */, the compiler will take them as if they were C++ expressions, most likely causing one or several error messages when you compile it.
Preprocessor directives:
Preprocessor directives are lines included in the code of our programs that are not program statements but directives for the processor. These lines are always preceded by a pound sign (#). The processor executed before the actual compilation of code is generated by the statements.

These processor directives extend only across a single line of code. As soon as a new line character is found, the processor directive is considered to end. No semicolon (;) is expected at the end of a preprocessor directive. The only way a preprocessor directive can extend through more than one line is by preceding the new line character at the end of the line by a backslash (/)
Macro definitions (#define, #undef)
To define preprocessor macros we can use #define. Its formate is:
#define identifier replacement.
When the preprossor encounters this direccive , it replaces any occurrence of identifier in the rest of the code by replacement can be an expresson , a statement , a block or simply anything. The processor does not understand C++ , it simply replaces any occurrence of identifier by replacement.
#define TABLE_SIZE 100
int table 1 [TABLE_SIZE];
int table 2 [TABLE_SIZE];
After the preprocessor has replased TABLE_SIZE, the code becomes equivalent to:
Int table 1[100];
Int table 2 [100];
This use of #define as constant definer is already known by us from previous tutorials, but #define can work also with parameters to define function macros:
#define getmax(a,b) a>b?a:b
This would replace any occurrence of getmax followed by two arguments by the replacement expression, but also replasing each argument by its identifier, exactly as you would expect if it was a function:
//function macro
#include
Using namespace std;

#define getmax(a,b) ((a)>(b)?(a)b))

Int main()
{
Int x=5,y;
Y=getmax (x,2);
Cout << y << endl;
Cout<< getmax(7,x)<Return 0;
} 5
6

Defined macros are not affected by block structure. A macro lasts until it is undefined with the #undef preprosseor directive:
#define table_size 100
Int table 1 [TABLE_SIZE];
#undef TABLE_SIZE
#define TABLE_SIZE 200
Int table 2[TABLE_SIZE];

This would generate the same code as:

Int table 1 [100];
Int table 2 [200];

Function macro definitions accept two special operators (# and ##) in the replacement sequence:
If the operator # is used before a parameter is used in the replacement sequence, that parameter is replaced by a string literal (as if it were enclosed between double quotes)
#define str (x) #x
Cout << str(test);

This would be translated into:
Cout << “test”;

The operator ## concatenates two arguments leaving no blank spaces between them:

#define glue(a,b) a## b
Glue(c,out) << ”test’’;
This would also be translated into:
Cout <<”test”;
Because preprocessor replacements happen before any C++ syntax check, macro definitions can be a tricky feature, but be careful: code that relies heavily on complicated macros may result obscure to other programmers, since the syntax they expect in C++.
Conditional inclusions (#ifdef, #ifdef, #if, #endif, #else and #elif)
These directives allow to include or discard part of the code of a program if a certain condition is met.
#ifdef allowes a section of a program to be compiled only if the macro that is specified as the parameter has been defined, no matter which its value is. For example:
#ifdef TABLE_SIZE
int table [TABLE_SIZE];
#endif
In this case , the line of code int table [TABLE_SIZE]; is only compiled if TABLE_SIZE was previously defined with #define, independently of its value. If it was not defined, that line will not be included in the program compilation.
#ifndef serves for the exact opposite: the code between #indef and #endif directives is only compiled if the specified identifier has not been previously defined. For example:
#ifndef TABLE_SIZE
#define TABLE_SIZE 100
#endif
Int table [TABLE_SIZE];


/* My second program in C++
With more comments*/
#include
Using namespace std;
Int main ()
{
Cout <<”Hello World!”; // prints Hello World!
Count <<”I’m a C++program”; //prints I’m a C++ program
return 0;
} Hellow World! I’m a C++ program








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World Wide Web





The World Wide Web




World Wide Web

"The World Wide Web" and "WWW" redirect here. For other uses, see Web and WWW (disambiguation). "Web surfing" redirects here. For the Web browser, see WorldWideWeb.


WWW's historic logo designed by Robert Cailliau
The World Wide Web (commonly shortened to the Web) is a system of interlinked hypertext documents accessed via the Internet. With a Web browser, a user views Web pages that may contain text, images, videos, and other multimedia and navigates between them using hyperlinks. The World Wide Web was created in 1989 by British scientist Sir Tim Berners-Lee, working at the European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN, Conseil Européen pour la Recherche Nucléaire) in Geneva, Switzerland, and released in 1992. Since then, Berners-Lee has played an active role in guiding the development of Web standards (such as the markup languages in which Web pages are composed), and in recent years has advocated his vision of a Semantic Web.
Contents
[hide]
• 1 How the Web works
• 2 History
o 2.1 History in literature
• 3 Standards
• 4 Java
• 5 JavaScript
• 6 Publishing Web pages
• 7 Statistics
• 8 Speed issues
• 9 Caching
• 10 Link rot and Web archival
• 11 Academic conferences
• 12 Security
• 13 Web Accessibility
• 14 WWW prefix in Web addresses
• 15 Pronunciation of "www"
• 16 See also
• 17 Notes
• 18 References
• 19 External links



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[edit] How the Web works
Viewing a Web page on the World Wide Web normally begins either by typing the URL of the page into a Web browser, or by following a hyperlink to that page or resource. The Web browser then initiates a series of communication messages, behind the scenes, in order to fetch and display it.
First, the server-name portion of the URL is resolved into an IP address using the global, distributed Internet database known as the domain name system, or DNS. This IP address is necessary to contact and send data packets to the Web server.
The browser then requests the resource by sending an HTTP request to the Web server at that particular address. In the case of a typical Web page, the HTML text of the page is requested first and parsed immediately by the Web browser, which will then make additional requests for images and any other files that form a part of the page. Statistics measuring a website's popularity are usually based on the number of 'page views' or associated server 'hits', or file requests, which take place.
Having received the required files from the Web server, the browser then renders the page onto the screen as specified by its HTML, CSS, and other Web languages. Any images and other resources are incorporated to produce the on-screen Web page that the user sees.


Most Web pages will themselves contain hyperlinks to other related pages and perhaps to downloads, source documents, definitions and other Web resources. Such a collection of useful, related resources, interconnected via hypertext links, is what was dubbed a "web" of information. Making it available on the Internet created what Tim Berners-Lee first called the WorldWideWeb (a term written in CamelCase, subsequently discarded) in 1990.[1]
[edit] History
Main article: History of the World Wide Web


This NeXTcube used by Sir Tim Berners-Lee at CERN became the first Web server.
The underlying ideas of the Web can be traced as far back as 1980, when, at CERN in Switzerland, Sir Tim Berners-Lee built ENQUIRE (a reference to Enquire Within Upon Everything, a book he recalled from his youth). While it was rather different from the system in use today, it contained many of the same core ideas (and even some of the ideas of Berners-Lee's next project after the World Wide Web, the Semantic Web).
In March 1989, Berners-Lee wrote a proposal[2] which referenced ENQUIRE and described a more elaborate information management system. With help from Robert Cailliau, he published a more formal proposal for the World Wide Web on November 12, 1990.[3] The proposal was modeled after EBT's (Electronic Book Technology, a spin-off from the Institute for Research in Information and Scholarship at Brown University) Dynatext SGML reader that CERN had licensed. The Dynatext system, however technically advanced (a key player in the extension of SGML ISO 8879:1986 to Hypermedia within HyTime) was considered too expensive and with an inappropriate licensing policy for general HEP (High Energy Physics) community use: a fee for each document and each time a document was charged.
A NeXTcube was used by Berners-Lee as the world's first Web server and also to write the first Web browser, WorldWideWeb, in 1990. By Christmas 1990, Berners-Lee had built all the tools necessary for a working Web:[4] the first Web browser (which was a Web editor as well), the first Web server, and the first Web pages[5] which described the project itself.
On August 6, 1991, he posted a short summary of the World Wide Web project on the alt.hypertext newsgroup.[6] This date also marked the debut of the Web as a publicly available service on the Internet.
The first server outside of Europe was created at SLAC in December 1991 [7].
The crucial underlying concept of hypertext originated with older projects from the 1960s, such as the Hypertext Editing System (HES) at Brown University--- among others Ted Nelson and Andries van Dam--- Ted Nelson's Project Xanadu and Douglas Engelbart's oN-Line System (NLS). Both Nelson and Engelbart were in turn inspired by Vannevar Bush's microfilm-based "memex," which was described in the 1945 essay "As We May Think".
Berners-Lee's breakthrough was to marry hypertext to the Internet. In his book Weaving The Web, he explains that he had repeatedly suggested that a marriage between the two technologies was possible to members of both technical communities, but when no one took up his invitation, he finally tackled the project himself. In the process, he developed a system of globally unique identifiers for resources on the Web and elsewhere: the Uniform Resource Identifier.
The World Wide Web had a number of differences from other hypertext systems that were then available. The Web required only unidirectional links rather than bidirectional ones. This made it possible for someone to link to another resource without action by the owner of that resource. It also significantly reduced the difficulty of implementing Web servers and browsers (in comparison to earlier systems), but in turn presented the chronic problem of link rot. Unlike predecessors such as HyperCard, the World Wide Web was non-proprietary, making it possible to develop servers and clients independently and to add extensions without licensing restrictions.
On April 30, 1993, CERN announced[8] that the World Wide Web would be free to anyone, with no fees due. Coming two months after the announcement that the Gopher protocol was no longer free to use, this produced a rapid shift away from Gopher and towards the Web. An early popular Web browser was ViolaWWW, which was based upon HyperCard.
Scholars generally agree, however, that the turning point for the World Wide Web began with the introduction[9] of the Mosaic Web browser[10] in 1993, a graphical browser developed by a team at the National Center for Supercomputing Applications at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign (NCSA-UIUC), led by Marc Andreessen. Funding for Mosaic came from the High-Performance Computing and Communications Initiative, a funding program initiated by the High Performance Computing and Communication Act of 1991, one of several computing developments initiated by Senator Al Gore.[11] Prior to the release of Mosaic, graphics were not commonly mixed with text in Web pages, and its popularity was less than older protocols in use over the Internet, such as Gopher and Wide Area Information Servers (WAIS). Mosaic's graphical user interface allowed the Web to become, by far, the most popular Internet protocol.
The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) was founded by Tim Berners-Lee after he left the European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN) in October, 1994. It was founded at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology Laboratory for Computer Science (MIT/LCS) with support from the Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency (DARPA) -- which had pioneered the Internet -- and the European Commission.
[edit] History in literature
The concept of a home-based global information system goes back at least as far as Isaac Asimov's short story "Anniversary" (Amazing Stories, March 1959), in which the characters look up information on a home computer called a "Multivac outlet" — which was connected by a "planetwide network of circuits" to a mile-long "super-computer" somewhere in the bowels of the Earth. One character is thinking of installing a Multivac, Jr. model for his kids.
The story was set in the far distant future when commercial space travel was commonplace, and yet the machine "prints the answer on a slip of tape" that comes out a slot — there is no video display — and the owner of the home computer says that he doesn't spend the kind of money to get a Multivac outlet that talks.
[edit] Standards
Main article: Web standards
Many formal standards and other technical specifications define the operation of different aspects of the World Wide Web, the Internet, and computer information exchange. Many of the documents are the work of the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C), headed by Berners-Lee, but some are produced by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) and other organizations.
Usually, when Web standards are discussed, the following publications are seen as foundational:
• Recommendations for markup languages, especially HTML and XHTML, from the W3C. These define the structure and interpretation of hypertext documents.
• Recommendations for stylesheets, especially CSS, from the W3C.
• Standards for ECMAScript (usually in the form of JavaScript), from Ecma International.
• Recommendations for the Document Object Model, from W3C.
Additional publications provide definitions of other essential technologies for the World Wide Web, including, but not limited to, the following:
• Uniform Resource Identifier (URI), which is a universal system for referencing resources on the Internet, such as hypertext documents and images. URIs, often called URLs, are defined by the IETF's RFC 3986 / STD 66: Uniform Resource Identifier (URI): Generic Syntax, as well as its predecessors and numerous URI scheme-defining RFCs;
• HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP), especially as defined by RFC 2616: HTTP/1.1 and RFC 2617: HTTP Authentication, which specify how the browser and server authenticate each other.
[edit] Java
A significant advance in Web technology was Sun Microsystems' Java platform. It enables Web pages to embed small programs (called applets) directly into the view. These applets run on the end-user's computer, providing a richer user interface than simple Web pages. Java client-side applets never gained the popularity that Sun had hoped for a variety of reasons, including lack of integration with other content (applets were confined to small boxes within the rendered page) and the fact that many computers at the time were supplied to end users without a suitably installed Java Virtual Machine, and so required a download by the user before applets would appear. Adobe Flash now performs many of the functions that were originally envisioned for Java applets, including the playing of video content, animation, and some rich GUI features. Java itself has become more widely used as a platform and language for server-side and other programming.
[edit] JavaScript
JavaScript, on the other hand, is a scripting language that was initially developed for use within Web pages. The standardized version is ECMAScript. While its name is similar to Java, JavaScript was developed by Netscape and has very little to do with Java, although the syntax of both languages is derived from the C programming language. In conjunction with a Web page's Document Object Model (DOM), JavaScript has become a much more powerful technology than its creators originally envisioned.[citation needed] The manipulation of a page's DOM after the page is delivered to the client has been called Dynamic HTML (DHTML), to emphasize a shift away from static HTML displays.
In simple cases, all the optional information and actions available on a JavaScript-enhanced Web page will have been downloaded when the page was first delivered. Ajax ("Asynchronous JavaScript and XML") is a group of interrelated web development techniques used for creating interactive web applications that provide a method whereby parts within a Web page may be updated, using new information obtained over the network at a later time in response to user actions. This allows the page to be more responsive, interactive and interesting, without the user having to wait for whole-page reloads. Ajax is seen as an important aspect of what is being called Web 2.0. Examples of Ajax techniques currently in use can be seen in Gmail, Google Maps, and other dynamic Web applications.
[edit] Publishing Web pages
Web page production is available to individuals outside the mass media. In order to publish a Web page, one does not have to go through a publisher or other media institution, and potential readers could be found in all corners of the globe.
Many different kinds of information are available on the Web, and for those who wish to know other societies, cultures, and peoples, it has become easier.
The increased opportunity to publish materials is observable in the countless personal and social networking pages, as well as sites by families, small shops, etc., facilitated by the emergence of free Web hosting services.
[edit] Statistics
According to a 2001 study, there were massively more than 550 billion documents on the Web, mostly in the invisible Web, or deep Web.[12] A 2002 survey of 2,024 million Web pages[13] determined that by far the most Web content was in English: 56.4%; next were pages in German (7.7%), French (5.6%), and Japanese (4.9%). A more recent study, which used Web searches in 75 different languages to sample the Web, determined that there were over 11.5 billion Web pages in the publicly indexable Web as of the end of January 2005.[14] As of June 2008, the indexable web contains at least 63 billion pages.[15] On July 25, 2008, Google software engineers Jesse Alpert and Nissan Hajaj announced that Google Search had discovered one trillion unique URLs.[16]
Over 100.1 million websites operated as of March 2008.[17] Of these 74% were commercial or other sites operating in the .com generic top-level domain.[17] Among services paid for by advertising, Yahoo! could collect the most data about commercial Web users, about 2,500 bits of information per month about each typical user of its site and its affiliated advertising network sites. Yahoo! was followed by MySpace with about half that potential and then by AOL-TimeWarner, Google, Facebook, Microsoft, and eBay.[18] About 27% of websites operated outside .com addresses.[17]
[edit] Speed issues
Frustration over congestion issues in the Internet infrastructure and the high latency that results in slow browsing has led to an alternative, pejorative name for the World Wide Web: the World Wide Wait.[citation needed] Speeding up the Internet is an ongoing discussion over the use of peering and QoS technologies. Other solutions to reduce the World Wide Wait can be found on W3C.
Standard guidelines for ideal Web response times are:[19]
• 0.1 second (one tenth of a second). Ideal response time. The user doesn't sense any interruption.
• 1 second. Highest acceptable response time. Download times above 1 second interrupt the user experience.
• 10 seconds. Unacceptable response time. The user experience is interrupted and the user is likely to leave the site or system.
These numbers are useful for planning server capacity.
[edit] Caching
If a user revisits a Web page after only a short interval, the page data may not need to be re-obtained from the source Web server. Almost all Web browsers cache recently-obtained data, usually on the local hard drive. HTTP requests sent by a browser will usually only ask for data that has changed since the last download. If the locally-cached data is still current, it will be reused.
Caching helps reduce the amount of Web traffic on the Internet. The decision about expiration is made independently for each downloaded file, whether image, stylesheet, JavaScript, HTML, or whatever other content the site may provide. Thus even on sites with highly dynamic content, many of the basic resources only need to be refreshed occasionally. Web site designers find it worthwhile to collate resources such as CSS data and JavaScript into a few site-wide files so that they can be cached efficiently. This helps reduce page download times and lowers demands on the Web server.
There are other components of the Internet that can cache Web content. Corporate and academic firewalls often cache Web resources requested by one user for the benefit of all. (See also Caching proxy server.) Some search engines, such as Google or Yahoo!, also store cached content from websites.
Apart from the facilities built into Web servers that can determine when files have been updated and so need to be re-sent, designers of dynamically-generated Web pages can control the HTTP headers sent back to requesting users, so that transient or sensitive pages are not cached. Internet banking and news sites frequently use this facility.
Data requested with an HTTP 'GET' is likely to be cached if other conditions are met; data obtained in response to a 'POST' is assumed to depend on the data that was POSTed and so is not cached.
[edit] Link rot and Web archival
Main article: Link rot
Over time, many Web resources pointed to by hyperlinks disappear, relocate, or are replaced with different content. This phenomenon is referred to in some circles as "link rot" and the hyperlinks affected by it are often called "dead links".
The ephemeral nature of the Web has prompted many efforts to archive Web sites. The Internet Archive is one of the most well-known efforts; it has been active since 1996.
[edit] Academic conferences
The major academic event covering the Web is the World Wide Web Conference, promoted by IW3C2.
[edit] Security
The Web has become criminals' preferred pathway for spreading malware. Cybercrime carried out on the Web can include identity theft, fraud, espionage and intelligence gathering.[20] Web-based vulnerabilities now outnumber traditional computer security concerns,[21] and as measured by Google, about one in ten Web pages may contain malicious code.[22] Most Web-based attacks take place on legitimate websites, and most, as measured by Sophos, are hosted in the United States, China and Russia.[23]
The most common of all malware threats is SQL injection attacks against websites.[24] Through HTML and URIs the Web was vulnerable to attacks like cross-site scripting (XSS) that came with the introduction of JavaScript[25] and were exacerbated to some degree by Web 2.0 and Ajax web design that favors the use of scripts.[26] Today by one estimate, 70% of all websites are open to XSS attacks on their users.[27]
Proposed solutions vary to extremes. Large security vendors like McAfee already design governance and compliance suites to meet post-9/11 regulations,[28] and some, like Finjan have recommended active real-time inspection of code and all content regardless of its source.[20] Some have argued that for enterprise to see security as a business opportunity rather than a cost center,[29] "ubiquitous, always-on digital rights management" enforced in the infrastructure by a handful of organizations must replace the hundreds of companies that today secure data and networks.[30] Jonathan Zittrain has said users sharing responsibility for computing safety is far preferable to locking down the Internet.[31]
[edit] Web Accessibility
Main article: Web accessibility
Many countries regulate web accessibility as a requirement for web sites.
[edit] WWW prefix in Web addresses
The letters "www" are commonly found at the beginning of Web addresses because of the long-standing practice of naming Internet hosts (servers) according to the services they provide. So for example, the host name for a Web server is often "www"; for an FTP server, "ftp"; and for a USENET news server, "news" or "nntp" (after the news protocol NNTP). These host names appear as DNS subdomain names, as in "www.example.com".
This use of such prefixes is not required by any technical standard; indeed, the first Web server was at "nxoc01.cern.ch",[32] and even today many Web sites exist without a "www" prefix. The "www" prefix has no meaning in the way the main Web site is shown. The "www" prefix is simply one choice for a Web site's host name.
Some Web browsers will automatically try adding "www." to the beginning, and possibly ".com" to the end, of typed URLs if no host is found without them. All major web browser will also prefix "http://www." and append ".com" to the address bar contents if the Control and Enter keys are pressed simultaneously. For example, entering "example" in the address bar and then pressing either just Enter or Control+Enter will usually resolve to "http://www.example.com", depending on the exact browser version and its settings.





EXAMAPERS123.BLOGSPOT.COM

General Awareness GK



SUCCESS FOR CAREER










General Awareness



Part I :
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four
4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
7. Who is called the ‘Father of History'?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.
12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.
15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.




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21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of ‘AM' regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.
27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria
29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry
32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) " all other things variable "
(b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal"
(d) "all other things decreasing"
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.
35. India's biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing
43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.' in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.
44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km
45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.
46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon




51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.
73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.
74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.
Answers Part - I
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d)
26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c)
36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a)
56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d)
66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)




EXAMAPERS123.BLOGSPOT.COM

Monday, September 27, 2010

iGATE



iGATE







SUCCESS FOR CAREER




They will ask mainly abt ur project work in interview.
For us, there were 6 groups of 10 members for group discussion and the no of people selected depend on their performance.. 4 from one group, 3 from another , yet 7 from a third grp and so on.
My topic was " Why indian sports poeple fails to perform in foreign grounds"
Another topic was merits and demerits of internet.

For technical there were 20 multiple choice questions: Out of which about 6 was electronics and 14 was from computer related areas

1. Full form of TTL and CMOS
2. Which is a good conductor (Extrinsic or Intrinsic)
3. What are the different types of capacitors (Electrolytic, dielectric...etc)
4. Select a passive component from the following (four choices were there)
5. Minimum no. of lines required for communication using RS232 (Ans: i think its 2)
6. To convert 1's complement to 2's complement and vice versa
7. During which time we use 'size of' command. (ans: runtime)
8. Out of four choice we have to identify which is a macro.
9. There was one pointer __expression related question.
10. To find post fix __expression.
11. What type of operating system is unix (ans: pre-emptive,[not sure])
a)pre-emptive b)non-preemptive c)batch
12. Defnition of turing machine.
13. Where we use DFD(Data flow design)
a)structural languages b)object oriented languages c)UML d)all of the above
14. Name the error which occurs when we write on a page
a) segment fault b)permission fault c) page fault
15. A question based on the representation of an array in C
An array whose elements are fn pointers which inturn returns a character

Sonata Aptitude test (IGate's aptitude test is very similar to this test).......Actually there were almost 25 questions repeated from this........

1. Last month of an year
(a) January (b) February (c) December (d) November
2. Select the odd one
(a) January (b) February (c) Wednesday (d) November
3. Select the antonym of capture from the following
(a) attack (b) Release (c) condemn (d) None
4. Find the antonym of autumn
(a) Spring (b) Winter (c) Summer (d) None of the above
5. One skirt requires 3.75 yards of cloth. How many skirts you can make from 45 yards?Ans: 12 skirts

6. How can you make a square from two triangles?

7. Is the meaning of Client and Customer,
(a) same (b) contradictory (c) no relation
8. Is the meaning of It's and Its,
(a) same (b) contradictory (c) no relation
9. Is the meaning of Canvas and Canvass,
(a) same (b) contradictory (c) no relation
10. Is the meaning of Ingenious and Ingenuous,
(a) same (b) contradictory (c) no relation
11. Is the meaning of Credible and Credulous,
(a) same (b) contradictory (c) no relation
12. Select the odd one out.
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/6 (d) 1/18
13. Select the least from the following.
(a) 0.99 (b) 1 (c) 81 (d) 0.333
14. Find the next number in the series. 1, 0.5, 0.25, 0.125 Ans: 0.0625
15. One dollar is saved in one month. Then how much dollar is saved in one day?
Ans: 1/30 =0.0333$
16. Y catches 5 times more fishes than X. If total number of fishes caught by X and Y is 48, then number of fishes caught by X? Ans: 8
17. Y catches 5 times more fishes than X. If total number of fishes caught by X and Y is 42, then number of fishes caught by X? Ans: 7
18. If a train covers 600m in 0.5 seconds, how long it will cover in 10 seconds? Ans: 3000m = 3km
19. The girl's age is twice that of boy, if the boy is four years old. After four years the age
of the girl is Ans: 12 years
20. Sister's age is twice than that of the brother. If the brother's age is six, what is the sister's age after two years? Ans: 14 Yrs.
21. Two lemons cost 10 cents. Then one and a half dozen cost Ans: 90 cents
22. A clock is late by 1 minute 27 seconds in a month. Then how much will it be late in 1 day?
Ans: 2.9 seconds
23. Which of the following figures together will make a triangle? Ans: a,b,c,d
24. Make a square by drawing only one line Ans: line 2-5, square 2-3-4-5-2
25. Which of the following is the odd one?
crew, constellation, companion, league, participants. Ans: companion
26. Opposite of Remote?
(a) Far (b) Near (c) Huge (d) Village
27. Statement A: All great men are ridiculous;
Statement B: I am ridiculous ;
Inference : I am a great man;
(a) True (b) False (c) Not clear
28. Statement: Normal children are active;
Inference: All children are active;
(a) True (b) False (c) Uncertain
29. Next number in the series 1, 1/2, 1/4, 1/8 ? Ans: 1/16
30. In 6 seconds a light flashes once. In one hour how many times it will flash? Ans: 601 times
31. At 20% discount, a cycle is sold at a selling price of Rs.2500. The actual price? Ans: Rs. 3125
32. Statement A: A & B have same age;
Statement B: B is younger than C;
Inference : A is younger than C;
(a) True (b) False (c) Uncertain
33. All chickens lay eggs (True/False) Ans: False
34. A invests $12000, B invests $8000, C invests $6000 and they got a profit of $1200. How much share A got more than B and C? Ans: 2/13 and 3/13






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Monday, August 02, 2010

C LANGUAGE PROGRAMS


C LANGUAGE PROGRAMS

1. What is the output of the program given below
#include
main()
{
char i=0;
for(;i>=0;i++) ;
printf("%d\n",i);
}
2. What is the output of the following program
#include
main()
{
int i=0;
fork();
printf("%d",i++);
fork();
printf("%d",i++);
fork();
wait();
}
3. What is the memory allocated by the following definition ?
int (*x)[10];
4. What is the memory allocated by the following definition ?
int (*x)();
5. In the following program segment
#include
main()
{
int a=2;
int b=9;
int c=1;
while(b)
{
if(odd(b))
c=c*a;
a=a*a;
b=b/2;
}
printf("%d\n",c);
}
How many times is c=c*a calculated?
6. In the program segment in question 5 what is the value of a at the end of the
whileloop?

7. What is the output for the program given below
typedef enum grade{GOOD,BAD,WORST,}BAD;
main()
{
BAD g1;
g1=1;
printf("%d",g1);
}
8. Give the output for the following program.
#define STYLE1 char
main()
{
typedef char STYLE2;
STYLE1 x;
STYLE2 y;
clrscr();
x=255;
y=255;
printf("%d %d\n",x,y);
}
9. Give the output for the following program segment.
#ifdef TRUE
int I=0;
#endif
main()
{
int j=0;
printf("%d %d\n",i,j);
}
10. In the following program
#include
main()
{
char *pDestn,*pSource="I Love You Daddy";
pDestn=malloc(strlen(pSource));
strcpy(pDestn,pSource);
printf("%s",pDestn);
free(pDestn);
}
(a)Free() fails (b)Strcpy() fails (c)prints I love You Daddy (d)error






11. What is the output for the following program
#include
main()
{
char a[5][5],flag;
a[0][0]='A';
flag=((a==*a)&&(*a==a[0]));
printf("%d\n",flag);
}


SUCESS FOR CARRER

Micro processor questions


Future Software PAPERS



1. S --> AB|AS
A --> a|aA
B --> b
What is the grammer accepted by the above?
Ans. aa*b

2. How many address lines are needed to address a 64Kb segment with
each register storing upto 512 bytes.
Ans. 14 address lines

3. Find the expression representing the following K-map
1 1 1
1 1
1 1 1

4. For the POS form of the expression given below
_ _ _
X.Y.Z + X.Y.Z + X.( Y + Z )

5. In a computer system the ROM :
(a) contains boot software (b) is permanent
(c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

6. The binary equivalent of 3B7F is
Ans. 0011 1011 0111 1111

7. The register used by the shift reduce passing method is
Ans. Stack

8. A microprogram can be defines as to consist of
Ans. A primitive operation

9. Find the output for the following C program
int array[4][4] = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16};
for (i=2;i<0 br="" i--="">for (j=2;j<=0;j--)
printf("%d", arr[i][j]);

10. Find the output for the following C program
#include
void main()
{int i,x,sum=0;
int arr[6]=[1,2,3,4,5,6]
for (i=0;i<4 br="" i="">sum+ = func(arr[i]);
printf("%d", sum);
}
func(int x)
{ int val,x;
val = 2;
return(x+ val++);
}

11. Given the following data:
Process P1 takes 2
seconds
Process P2 takes 3 seconds
Process P3 takes 4 seconds
Process P4 takes 1 second
Process P5 takes 6 seconds
Find the average time in case of shortest job first (SJF) scheduling.

12. Given a string STOCK and a stack of size 4.
Which of the following strings cannot be generated using this stack.
(a) TSOCK (b) TOSKC (c) STOCK (d) TKOSC (e) None of these

13. Inversion of a matrix will take which of the following time complexities?
(a) O(n) (b) O(n²) (c) O(log n) (d) O(n³) (e) None of these

14. A drum rotates at 4000 rpm. What is its average access time.

15. What range of integral values can be stored using 32 bits?

16. Where are the following variables stored
Automatic
Global
Static

17. If a layer 4 transfers
data at the rate of 3000 bytes/sec.
What will be the size of data block transferred by Layer 2

18. What is the greatest disadvantage of dynamic RAM over static RAM
Ans. High Power and need to refresh every 2 ms.

19. What happens when the CPU gets interrupted?

20. Find the Postfix of the following string
(a + b) * ((-d) *f
(ab - cd))

21. E --> E + E| E * E | E/E | E - E| .... then which is correct
(a) It is ambiguous (b) It is inherently ambigous
(c) It is non inherently ambiguous (d) None of the above

22. If there are n nodes and K edges in a graph then what is the order of traversing
Ans. O(n²)

23. A graph is represented as an adjacency list with n vertices and e edges
What is its time complexity
Ans. O(n + e)

24. An array with address KV[a] had n elements. Which of the following correctly addresses the
ith element of the array.
(a) KV(a) - 2a + 2i (b) KV(a) +2i (c) KV(a) - 2a (d) None of these

25. Give an example of a primitive instruction in microprocessors.
26. A computer has 8 bit data bus and 16 bit address line.
How many machine cycles will it take to store the contents to a memory location?
27. Where is a variable defined in a function stores?
Ans. Process Swappable Area

28. For the following C progralm
int d=0;
for(int i=0;i<31 br="" i="">for(int j=0;j<31 br="" j="">for(int k=0;k<31 br="" k="">if (((i+j+k) % 3)==0)
d=d+1;
Find value of d

29. e= | | <(e)> |
What forms do the expressions created by the above definition fit in
Ans. All arithematic expressions

30. If a set of numbers are in sorted order then which of the following
sorting method is best
Ans. Bubble Sort

31. A magnetic tape is similar to which of the following structures
Ans. List

32. The s/n id 3 dB Find the capacity of the line.

Thursday, July 29, 2010

Sonata Aptitude test



SUCCESS FOR CAREER




Sonata Aptitude test



1. Last month of an year
(a) January (b) February
(c) December (d) November
2. Select the odd one
(a) January (b) February
(c) Wednesday (d) November
3. Select the antonym of capture from the following
(a) attack (b) Release
(c) condemn (d) None of the above
4. Find the antonym of autumn
(a) Spring (b) Winter (c) Summer (d) None
of the above
5. One skirt requires 3.75 yards of cloth. How many
skirts you can make
from 45 yards?
Ans: 12 skirts
6. How can you make a square from two triangles?
7. Is the meaning of Client and Customer,
(a) same (b) contradictory
(c) no relation
8. Is the meaning of It's and Its,
(a) same (b) contradictory
(c) no relation
9. Is the meaning of Canvas and Canvass,
(a) same (b) contradictory
(c) no relation
10. Is the meaning of Ingenious and Ingenuous,
(a) same (b) contradictory
(c) no relation

11. Is the meaning of Credible and Credulous,
(a) same (b) contradictory
(c) no relation
12. Select the odd one out.
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/3
(c) 1/6 (d) 1/18
13. Select the least from the following.
(a) 0.99 (b) 1
(c) 81 (d) 0.333
14. Find the next number in the series. 1, 0.5,
0.25,
0.125
Ans: 0.0625
15. One dollar is saved in one month. Then how much
dollar is saved in
one day?
Ans: 1/30 =0.0333$
16. Y catches 5 times more fishes than X. If total
number of fishes
caught by X and Y is 48, then number of fishes caught by X?
Ans: 8
17. Y catches 5 times more fishes than X. If total
number of fishes
caught by X and Y is 42, then number of fishes caught by X?
Ans: 7
18. If a train covers 600m in 0.5 seconds, how long
it will cover in 10
seconds?
Ans: 3000m = 3km
19. The girl's age is twice that of boy, if the
boy is four years old.
After four years the age
of the girl is
Ans: 12 years
20. Sister's age is twice than that of the brother.
If the brother's
age is six, what is the sister's age after two years?
Ans: 14 Yrs.
21. Two lemons cost 10 cents. Then one and a half
dozen cost
Ans: 90 cents
22. A clock is late by 1 minute 27 seconds in a
month. Then how much
will it be late in 1 day?
Ans: 2.9 seconds
23. Which of the following figures together will
make a triangle?
Ans: a,b,c,d
24. Make a square by drawing only one line
Ans: line 2-5, square 2-3-4-5-2
25. Which of the following is the odd one? crew,
constellation, companion, league, participants.
Ans: companion
26. Opposite of Remote?
(a) Far (b) Near
(c) Huge (d) Village
27. Statement A: All great men are ridiculous;
Statement B: I am ridiculous ;
Inference : I am a great man;
(a) True (b) False
(c) Not clear
28. Statement: Normal children are active;
Inference: All children are active;
(a) True (b) False
(c) Uncertain
29. Next number in the series 1, 1/2, 1/4, 1/8 ?
Ans: 1/16
30. In 6 seconds a light flashes once. In one hour
how many times it
will flash?
Ans: 601 times
31. At 20% discount, a cycle is sold at a selling
price of 2500 Rs.
What is the actual price?
Ans: Rs. 3125
32. Statement A: A & B have same age;
Statement B: B is younger than C;
Inference : A is younger than C;
(a) True (b) False
(c) Uncertain
33. All chickens lay eggs (True/False)
Ans: False
34. A invests $12000, B invests $8000, C invests
$6000 and they got a
profit of $1200. How much share A got more than B and C?
Ans: 2/13 and 3/13





EXAMAPERS123.BLOGSPOT.COM






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Wednesday, July 28, 2010

Wipro Technologies EXAM PAPER



SUCCESS FOR CAREER





Wipro's university-like ambitions to dominate outsourcing







wipro question paper




1) A topic on Gandhiji’s Salt Satyagraha Movement. Four sentences were given and you
have to arrange them to make a paragraph. Ans: CABD (Check it out).


2) What can’t be changed by the user program? Ans: Memory Map(Check)


3) In which layer ROUTING is performed? Ans: Network Layer


4) What is the output of the following code snippet?
main()
{
printf(5+”Fascimile”);
}
Ans: mile

5) What is the output?
Main()
{
Int count=10,sum=0,*temp;
Temp=&count;
Sum=∑ &count; (It was actually given temp=∑&count; which is probably wrong)
Printf(“sum=%d count= %d temp=%d “,sum, count,*temp);
} Ans: C (most expected answer, check it)


6) Which one has no L-Value
[i] a[i] [ii] I [iii] 2 [iv] *(a+i) Ans: [iii]


7) In threaded binary for which traversal orders unused left and right links are used?


8) Which is false for binary tree?
[i] Any node should have two children.
[iii] At fourth level the number of node should be less than 16.


9) Which is true for binary search?
[i] Traversal scheme [ii] [iii] Greedy algorithm [iv] Divide and conquer algorithm Ans: [iv]


10) What is the protocol used for getting the physical address by supplying IP address of a node?
[i] ARP [ii] RARP [iii] BOOTP [iv] DHCP Ans: [i]


11) If DELHI is coded as CCIDD then how BOMBAY will be coded?


12) Opposite of SPUR.


13) Opposite of HARBINGER? Ans: Follower


14) Opposite of PROTRUSION.


15) Opposite of RESTIVENESS. Ans: Docility.


16). Find the odd one in a given analogy? Ans: Mundane.



17) Find the analogy: SURPRISE: EXCLAMATION Ans: Dismay: groan.

18) Find the analogy:-- Plateau: Taxonomy.


19) Question from congestion control topic: Ans: source quench.


20) Question from kernel mode: Ans: Disable Interrupts.


21) Which one is a page replacement algorithm?
[i] fifo [ii] [iii] Least recently used. [iv] All of the above.


22) Using two numbers and interchanging + and * there was a question.
Ans: (iii) (some expression=22).


23) For each hour a watch is going slow by 30 seconds. Now time is
8a.m.What will be the actual time at 8 p.m? Ans: ii) 7:54.


24) Question regarding while loop. Ans: (iii).


25) Alphabetical order L, M…(can’t remember) Ans: F


26) One puzzle:(I cant exactly remember this question giving brief idea of this question) there were four guys A, B, C, D. the older and younger relation is given. U have to find the age of the A ? Ans: 7 years (check it out).



28) Nine people six floors. Conditions are given. (This was a very long paragraph). Peoples named like I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q. Ans: J.


29) A question regarding node. Ans: (iii)


30) A problem regarding age of father and son (very easy problem u can solve it).
31) Point out error in the following sentence:
I got the book in the office and slipped it out.
[i] I got the book. [ii] in the. [iii] office and . [iv] Slipped it out. Ans: [iv].


32) Point out error:(about a flowers garden)
Ans: “among on another”. (I can’t remember the options).





EXAMAPERS123.BLOGSPOT.COM









wipro question paper




1) abcD+abcd+aBCd+aBCD then the simplified function is( Capital letters are copliments of corresponding letters A=compliment of a) [a] a [b] ab [c] abc [d] a(bc)* [e] none
(bc)*=compliment of bc Ans: e

2) A 12 address lines maps to the memory of[a] 1k bytes [b] 0.5k bytes [c] 2k bytes [d] none Ans: b

3) In a processor these are 120 instructions . Bits needed to impliment this instructions
[a] 6 [b] 7 [c] 10 [d] none Ans: b


4) In 8085 microprocessor READY signal does.which of the following is incorrect statements
[a]It is input to the microprocessor [b] It sequences the instructions Ans : b


5) Return address will be returned by function to [a] Pushes to the stack by call Ans : a

6) n=7623
{
temp=n/10;
result=temp*10+ result;
n=n/10
} Ans : 3267


7) If A>B then
F=F(G);
else B>C then
F=G(G);
in this , for 75% times A>B and 25% times B>C then,is 10000 instructions are there ,then the ratio of F to G [a] 7500:2500 [b] 7500:625 [c] 7500:625 if a=b=c else 7500:2500

8) In a compiler there is 36 bit for a word and to store a character 8bits are needed. IN this to store a character two words are appended .Then for storing a K characters string, How many words are needed. [a] 2k/9 [b] (2k+8)/9 [c] (k+8)/9 [d] 2*(k+8)/9 [e] none Ans: a

9) C program code>
int zap(int n)
{
if(n<=1)then zap=1;
else zap=zap(n-3)+zap(n-1);
}
then the call zap(6) gives the values of zap [a] 8 [b] 9 [c] 6 [d] 12 [e] 15 Ans: b






EXAMAPERS123.BLOGSPOT.COM







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WIPRO MODEL EXAM PAPERS





Why World Bank, Wipro kept quiet for so long



They say this has resulted due to some changes in their internal policy. The incident goes back to 2000 when we did a listing in the US for our ADR.

As per the US law at that time and as per the SEC approval scheme, we ran a programme called Directed Share Programme (DSP). It basically permitted us to issue shares at market price (which was about $41 at that point of time), to employees, customers and other stakeholders.

It was limited to just 5 per cent of the total issue, and had a limitation about how many shares will be given to any single in



TCS MODEL EXAM PAPERS


WIPRO 3
1. An electron moving in an electromagnetic field moves in a (a) In a straight path (b) Along the same plane in the direction of its propagation(c) Opposite to the original direction of propagation(d) In a sine wave Ans. (b)

2. The total work done on the particle is equal to the change in its kinetic energy
(a) Always (b) Only if the forces acting on the body are conservative. (c) Only if the forces acting on the body are gravitational. (d) Only if the forces acting on the body are elastic. Ans. (a)

3. The following unit measure energy: (a) Kilo-watt hour. (b) Volt*volt/sec*ohm.
(c)Pascal*foot*foot (d) (Coulomb*coulomb)*farad Ans. (a)

4. Astronauts in stable orbits around the earth are in a state of weightlessness because
(a) There is no gravitational force acting on them. (b) The satellite and the air inside it have an acceleration equal to that of gravitational acceleration there. (c) The gravitational force of the earth and the sun balance giving null resultant. (d) There is no atmosphere at the height at which the satellites move. Ans. (b)

5. An organ pipe, open at both ends and another organ pipe closed at one end, will resonate with each other, if their lengths are in the ratio of(a) 1:1(b) 1:4(c) 2:1(d) 1:2 Ans. (c)

6. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas (a)Its internal energy increases.(b)Its internal energy decreases.(c)Its internal energy does not change.(d) The work done by the gas is not equal to the quantity of heat absorbed by it.Ans. (c)

7. A parallel plate capaciator is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the plates of the capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles
(a)The charge on the capacitor increases. (b)The voltage across the plates increases.(c)The capacitance increases.(d)The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor decreases.Ans. (b)

8. Two equal negative charges q are fixed at point (0,a) and (0,-a) on the y-axis.A positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a,0) on the x-axis. The charge Q will
(a)Execute simple harmonic motion about the origin(b)Move to the origin and remain at rest(c)Move to infinity(d)Execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion Ans. (d)

9. A square conducting loop of length Lon a side carries a current I.The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is (a Independant of L(b)Proportional to L*L(c)Inversely proportoinal to L
(d) Directly proportional to L Ans. (c)

10. The focal length of a convex lens when placed in air and then in water will
(a)Increase in water with respect to air (b)Increase in air with respect to water(c)Decrease in water with respect to. air(d)Remain the same Ans. (a)

11. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted from the surface is dependant on
(a)The intensity of incident radiation(b)The potential of the collector electrode(c)The frequency of incident radiation(d)The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface Ans. (c)

12. An electron orbiting in a circular orbit around the nucleus of the atom
(a)Has a magnetic dipole moment(b)Exerts an electric force on the nucleus equal to that on it by the nucleus(c)Does not produce a magnetic induction at the nucleus(d)All of the aboveAns. (d)


13. The X-rays beam coming from an X-ray tube will be:
(a) Monochromatic(b) Having all wavelengths smaller than a certain minimum wavelength(c) Having all wavelengths larger than a certain minimum wavelength(d) Having all wavelengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength Ans. (c)

14. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number(b) Always more than its atomic number(c) Always equal to its atomic number(d) Sometimes more and sometimes equal to its atomic number Ans. (d)

15.Two successive elements belonging to the first transition series have the same numberof electrons partially filling orbitals. They are(a) V and Cr(b) Ti and V(c) Mn and Cr (d) Fe and Co Ans. (c)






EXAMAPERS123.BLOGSPOT.COM



16. When n+l has the same value for two or more orbitals,the new electron enters the orbital where(a) n is maximum(b) n is minimum(c) l is maximum(d) l is minimum Ans. (b)

17. A balloon filled with ethylene is pricked with a sharp pointed needle and quickly placed in a tank full of hydrogen at the same pressure. After a while the balloon would have (a)Shrunk
(b) Enlarged(c) Completely collapsed(d) Remain unchanged in size Ans. (b)

18.Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The ratio of the mean speed to the rms speed is independant of temperature (b) Tthe square of the mean speed of the molecules is equal to the mean squared speed at a certain temperature
(c) Mean kinetic energy of the gas molecules at any given temperature is independant of the mean speed (d) None Ans. (b)

19. Which of the following statements represent Raoult's Law
(a) Mole fraction of solvent = ratio of vapour pressure of the solution to vapour pressure of he solvent(b) Mole fraction of solute = ratio of vapour pressure of the solution to vapour pressure of the solvent(c) Mole fraction of solute = lowering of vapour pressure of the solution
(d) Mole fraction of solvent = lowering of vapour pressure of the solution Ans. (a)

20. Elements having the same atomic number and the same atomic mass are known as
(a) Isotopes(b) Isotones(c) Isomers(d) None of the above

21.Which is the most acidic amongst (a) Nitrophenol(b) O-toulene(c) Phenol(d) Cresol

22. Pure water does not conduct electricity because it is (a) Almost not ionized(b) Low boiling(c) Neutral(d) Readily decomposed Ans. (a)

23. In a salt bridge, KCl is used because
(a) It is an electrolyte(b) The transference number of K+ and Cl¯ is nearly the same (c) It is a good conductor of electricity(d) All of the above Ans. (d)

24. A depolarizer used in the dry cell batteries is (a) KCl(b) MnO2(c) KOH(d) None Ans. (b)

25. The hydrolysis of alkyl halides by aqueous NaOH is best termed as (a) Electrophylic substitution reaction(b) Electrophylic addition reaction(c) Nnucleophylic addition reaction(d) Nucleophylic substitution reaction Ans. (d)

26. The hydrocarbon that gives a red precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is (where 'Âş' means a triple bond)(a) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3(b) CH3-CÂşC-CH3(c)CH2=CH-CH=CH2(d) CH3-CH2-CÂşCH Ans. (d)
27. Which of the following reagents is neither neutral nor basic
(a) Lucas' reagent(b) Tollen's reagent(c) Bayer's reagent(d) Fehling's solutionAns. (a)

28. The substance which is most easily nitrated
(a) Toluene(b) Bbenzene(c) Nitrobenzene(d) Chlorobenzene Ans. (a)

29. Carbylamine reaction is a test for
(a) Primary amine(b) Secondary amine(c) Tertiary amine(d) Quarternary ammonium salt Ans. (a)

30. Which of the following oxides cannot be reduced by carbon to obtain metal
(a) ZnO(b) Al2O3(c) Fe2O3(d) PbO Ans. (b)

31.Which of the following is not an oxide ore?
(a)Cassiterite(b) Siderite(c) Pyrolusite(d) Bauxite Ans. b

32. Which among the following is called philosopher's wool
(a) Cellulose(b) Calamine(c) Stellite(d) Cerussite Ans. (c)

33. Out of 10 white, 9 black and 7 red balls, in how many ways can we select one or more balls
(a) 234(b) 52(c) 630(d) 879 Ans. (d)

34. A and B throw a dice. The probabilty that A's throw is not greater than B's is
(a) 5/12(b) 7/12(c) 11/12(d) 5/36 Ans. (b)

35. Given two numbers a and b. Let A denote the single AM between these and S denote the sum of n AMs between them. Then S/A depends upon (a) n(b) n,a(c) n,b(d) n,a,b Ans. (a)

36. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax²+bx+c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals, then, a/c, b/a, c/b are in (a) AP(b) GP(c) HP(d) None of the theseAns. (c)

In the following questions ~ represents the integral sign-for eg. 1~2[f(x)] means integration of the function f(x) over the interval 1 to2.

37. Value of -1~2[|2-x²|]dx, ie integration of the function |2-x²| over the interval -1 to 2.
(a) 0(b) 1(c) 2(d) None of the above Ans. (d)

38. If 0~P[log sinx]dx=k,then the value of 0~P/4[log(1 + tan x)]dx ,where P stands for pi,is
(a) -k/4(b) k/4(c) -k/8(d) k/8 Ans. (c)

39. If a,b,c be in GP and p,q be respectively AM between a,b and b,c then
(a) 2/b=1/p+1/q(b) 2/b=1/p-1/q(c) 2=a/p-c/q(d) None of the above Ans. (a)

40. A solution of KMnO4 is reduced to MnO2 .The normality of solution is 0.6.The molarity is
(a) 1.8M(b) 0.6M(c) 0.1M(d) 0.2M Ans. (d)

The questions 41-46 are based on the following pattern.The problems below contain a question
and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the
statements are sufficient for answering the questions.The correct answer is
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement(II) alone is sufficient but statement(I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
41. What is John's age?
(I)In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be (II) Dias was born 5 years ago Ans. (C)

42. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?
(I) City A is 90 kms from City B(II) City B is 30 kms from City C Ans. (D)

43.Is A=C ? A,B,C are real numbers (I) A-B=B-C(II) A-2C = C-2B Ans. (C)

44. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?
(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2 (II) The common difference is -1/2 Ans. (A)

45.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?
(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow Ans. (D)

46. What is the value of A if A is an integer? (I) A4 = 1 (II) A3 + 1 = 0 Ans. (B)

47. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place? (a) 5.5 kms (b) 3 km (c) 13 km (d) 6.4 km Ans. (b)

48. X's father's wife's father's granddaughter uncle will be related to X as
(a) Son(b) Nephew(c) Uncle(d) Grandfather Ans. (c)

49. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31 (a) 43(b) 33(c) 41(d) 45 Ans. (a)

50. If in a certain code "RANGE" is coded as 12345 and "RANDOM" is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word "MANGO" would be(a) 82357(b) 89343(c) 84629(d) 82347 Ans. (d)

51. If "PROMPT" is coded as QSPLOS ,then "PLAYER" should be(a)QMBZFS(b)QWMFDW (c)QUREXM (d)URESTI Ans. (a)

The questions 52-53 are based on the following data
6 people A,B,C,D,E and F sit around a table for dinner.Since A does not like C, he doesn't sit either opposite or beside C.B and F always like to sit opposite each other.

52. If A is beside F then who is are the two neighbours of B?
(a) D and C(b) E and C(c) D and E(d) Either (a) or (b) Ans. (c)

53. If D is adjacent to F then who is adjacent to C? (a) E & B(b) D & A(c) D & B(d) a or c Ans.(d)

54. Complete the sequence A, E ,I ,M ,Q ,U , _ , _ (a) B, F(b) Y, C(c) G, I(d) K, O Ans.(b)

55. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels
6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?(a) 13km east(b) 13km northeast(c) 13km northwest(d) 13km west Ans. (c)

56. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times. What is the probability that they tell the truth at the same time(a) 0.8(b) 0.48(c) 0.6(d) 0.14 Ans.(b)
57. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to
(a)Shortest Job First Scheduling(b)Multilevel Queue Scheduling (c)FCFS (d)None Ans. (c)


58. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes
(a) Uplinking(b) Downlinking(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above Ans. (c)

59. The format specifier "-%d" is used for which purpose in C
(a) Left justifying a string(b) Right justifying a string(c) Removing a string from the console
(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[] variable Ans. (a)

60. Virtual functions allow you to
(a) Create an array of type pointer-to-base-class that can hold pointers to derived classes(b) Create functions that have no body(c) Group objects of different classes so they can all be accessed by the same function code (d) Use the same function call to execute member functions to objects from different classes

62. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case and a worst time algorithm in worst case is(a) Quick Sort(b) Heap Sort(c) Merge Sort(d) Insert Sort Ans. (a)

63. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?
(a) Details(b) Coding(c) Decisions(d) None of the above Ans. (c)

64. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler
(a) Reallocation(b) Allocation(c) Linking(d) Both (a) and (b) Ans. (d)

65. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with
(a) Deadlock prevention(b) Deadlock avoidance(c) Deadlock recovery(d) None of these Ans. (b)

66. Thrashing can be avoided if
(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory (b) The speed of CPU is increased (c) The speed of I/O processor are increased d) All of the above Ans. (a)

67. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?(a) Narrowband channels(b) Simplex channels(c) Full-duplex channels
(d) Mixedband channels Ans. (b)

68. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except
(a) Project name(b) Problem descriptions(c) Feasible alternative(d) Data flow diagrams Ans. (d)

69. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?
(a) To detect problems in protocols(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link
(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link(d) To determine the flow of data: (a)

70. Which of the following is a broadband communications channel?
(a) Coaxial cable(b) Fiber optic cable(c) Microwave circuits(d) All of the above Ans. (d)

71. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?
(a) Cache memory(b) Magnetic bubble memory(c) Magnetic core memory(d) RAM Ans. (a)

72. A shift register can be used for (a) Parallel to serial conversion (b) Serial to parallel conversion(c) Digital delay line(d) All the above Ans. (d)

73. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady's anomaly occurs?
(a) FIFO(b) LRU(c) LFU(d) NRU Ans. (a)

74. Subschema can be used to
(a) Create very different, personalised views of the same data (b) Present information in different formats (c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema's description(d) All of the above Ans. (d)





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